tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post3250388562230847100..comments2023-07-23T09:12:13.303-07:00Comments on Examining the Trinity: SHARP'S RuleElijah Danielshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/13053062645377291813noreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-13395931047791245282016-06-10T21:26:22.140-07:002016-06-10T21:26:22.140-07:00“1. Granville Sharp ‘made up the rule.’ You also c...“1. Granville Sharp ‘made up the rule.’ You also claimed he ‘invented it.’ No he did not. That would be eisegesis. He performed an analysis through exegesis. You are wrong.” <br /><br />If he performed an ‘analysis’ it was incomplete and inaccurate. Even many trinitarian scholars disavow it (as was shown in the article). “Invented” is a good description of a false rule such as his. <br /><br />“2. You misstated the rule. You state, ‘It says, in effect,’ then you deceptively claim, ‘they all refer to the same person.’ You need to do your homework. Sharp never made such a claim.” <br /><br />Trinitarian Daniel B. Wallace not only stated it in his own words in the 1981 source I used originally for this study, but he repeated it in his noted Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics of 1996. He also QUOTED the same rule as written by Sharp in both of his works. In all these cases, Wallace (and Sharp himself) wrote exactly what I have said. The very first quote by Wallace in my study above is his QUOTE of what Sharp wrote! <br /><br />See the word “PERSON”?<br /><br />“3. You claimed the following: ‘then (according to Sharp) God and Christ (the savior, etc.) are the same person!’ Sharp never claimed this nor have any Evangelical scholar. YOU inserted ‘person,’ making your claim a straw man. Yours is a false statement.” <br /><br />No, yours is a false statement! I did not insert ‘person.’ I merely based my statement on Sharp’s Rule as he stated it (and as Wallace also understood it). <br /><br />“4. You then made two logical fallacies by claiming the following, ‘IF he could convince others that his "rule" was true, then they would think there was finally (after 1400 years of a "trinity" tradition) absolute grammatical Bible proof that God and Jesus are the same "person"!’ <br /><br />“You[r] first logical fallacy is the non-sequitur. Convincing others and stating a period of time has nothing to do with biblical exegesis. Your second logical fallacy is the straw man. Sharp never intended to prove that ‘God and Jesus are the same person.’ No Trinitarian has ever held that position. Therefore, your examples are irrelevant related to your faulty premise. You have proven nothing while using logical fallacies throughout.” <br /><br />If you had bothered to read it all carefully, you would have seen that, although Sharp did state that the same PERSON was being described in his Sharp’s constructions, I have provided evidence against those trinitarians who do use his rule to prove Jesus is God. <br />This is done by a number of trinitarians by applying Sharp’s Rule to Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. <br /><br />You have proved nothing by attacking my honesty and diverting from my evidence concerning the frequent trinitarian “evidence” which attempts to use this ‘rule’ to ‘prove Jesus is God.<br /><br />tigger2https://www.blogger.com/profile/09601427279760049377noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-80244675107481441552016-06-10T21:25:21.685-07:002016-06-10T21:25:21.685-07:00Anonymous said about this study...
You state:
1...Anonymous said about this study... <br /><br />You state:<br /><br />1. Granville Sharp "made up the rule." You also claimed he "invented it." No he did not. That would be eisegesis. He performed an analysis through exegesis. You are wrong.<br />2. You misstated the rule. You state, "It says, in effect," then you deceptively claim, "they all refer to the same person." You need to do your homework. Sharp never made such a claim.<br />3. You claimed the following: "then (according to Sharp) God and Christ (the savior, etc.) are the same person!" Sharp never claimed this nor have any Evangelical scholar. YOU inserted "person," making your claim a straw man. Yours is a false statement.<br />4. You then made two logical fallacies by claiming the following, "IF he could convince others that his "rule" was true, then they would think there was finally (after 1400 years of a "trinity" tradition) absolute grammatical Bible proof that God and Jesus are the same "person"!" You first logical fallacy is the non-sequitur. Convincing others and stating a period of time has nothing to do with biblical exegesis. Your second logical fallacy is the straw man. Sharp never intended to prove that "God and Jesus are the same person." No Trinitarian has ever held that position. Therefore, your examples are irrelevant related to your faulty premise. You have proven nothing while using logical fallacies throughout. <br /><br />…………………….<br />tigger2https://www.blogger.com/profile/09601427279760049377noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-15917480974594175362016-06-10T19:50:12.089-07:002016-06-10T19:50:12.089-07:00This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.com