tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post4346274202674938211..comments2023-07-23T09:12:13.303-07:00Comments on Examining the Trinity: DEF - Part 3 (Appendix)Elijah Danielshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/13053062645377291813noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-80124267556455343092020-11-27T13:07:04.999-08:002020-11-27T13:07:04.999-08:00In the list entitled:
"All Verses by John Wh...In the list entitled: <br />"All Verses by John Where the Predicate Noun Precedes Its Verb" <br />there are #, -, and ? symbols before a few verses. These were for my benefit in finding and rating the clauses which were more accurate parallels to John 1:1c. (It appears I overlooked John 8:44 (a) where the - symbol should precede it.) <br /><br />But these should not deter from the fact that there are 18 (19?) clauses which all meet the requirements of trinitarian scholars for translating John 1:1c as ''And the word was God." That is, they all have the predicate noun placed before the verb (and are not improper examples as defined above). They also all indicate an indefinite predicate noun!<br />tigger2https://www.blogger.com/profile/09601427279760049377noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-83276422614314909352020-11-26T10:02:46.179-08:002020-11-26T10:02:46.179-08:00Why in verses that are similar to John 1: 1, do ce...Why in verses that are similar to John 1: 1, do certain columns begin with a "-" and others do not? Does that "-" have something to do with it or not?Isaíashttps://www.blogger.com/profile/14624437453381065462noreply@blogger.com