tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post8539463112708840204..comments2023-07-23T09:12:13.303-07:00Comments on Examining the Trinity: Prov. 8:22-30Elijah Danielshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/13053062645377291813noreply@blogger.comBlogger8125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-2717381224084942502016-11-22T05:14:29.433-08:002016-11-22T05:14:29.433-08:00The "possessed" meaning doesn't make...The "possessed" meaning doesn't make much sense to me. Qanah can mean to "possess", but in the sense of "buy" or "obtain". Where on earth did God "buy" or "obtain" the eternal second person of the Trinity from? Or where did he buy the abstract quality of wisdom from? Timitriushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/11786235138604501688noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-52092307141817092482015-05-22T11:49:17.935-07:002015-05-22T11:49:17.935-07:00I'll let the article speak for itself (especia...I'll let the article speak for itself (especially all the TRINITARIAN citations).tigger2https://www.blogger.com/profile/09601427279760049377noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-73103137117048439862015-05-22T00:46:47.332-07:002015-05-22T00:46:47.332-07:00Thank you for your response. How silly of me that ...Thank you for your response. How silly of me that I did not notice the brackets.<br /><br />Harkavy's Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary has qanah to mean "to own, to possess" as its second entry and cites, among others, Proverbs 8:22 to illustrate this.<br /><br />The Sinai Publishing Co's Holy Scriptures in Hebrew and English has 'qanah' translated as 'possessed' at Proverbs 8:22.<br /><br />Comments?Johnhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/17496161581317710863noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-10087538521505557252015-05-20T17:24:56.639-07:002015-05-20T17:24:56.639-07:00Gesenius wrote (as translated from his Latin origi...Gesenius wrote (as translated from his Latin original) Qanah: "(1) to found, create the heaven and the earth, Gen. 14:19, 22; men, Deut. 32:6; Psa. 139:13; Prov. 8:22..." <br /><br />The Trinitarian translator admits that he disagrees with noted theologian Gesenius in places and has inserted his own ideas in brackets at those places. The note you refer to is not by Gesenius but has been inserted in brackets by the translator.tigger2https://www.blogger.com/profile/09601427279760049377noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-6422556599042035142015-05-20T03:24:18.292-07:002015-05-20T03:24:18.292-07:00Why did you not mention Gesenius' contribution...Why did you not mention Gesenius' contribution to the Proverbs 8:22? He inserted a note that stated that there is no ground to holding that qanah can be translated as 'create' and that 'to possess' is the more accurate.Johnhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/17496161581317710863noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-68883938646153926632014-08-04T13:13:51.947-07:002014-08-04T13:13:51.947-07:00I believe that Jesus is wisdom here. Jesus is call...I believe that Jesus is wisdom here. Jesus is called wisdom in the NT and is Greek (Sophia) and that word is feminine too. Also, is there a time where Jehovah was not wise that he had to create an attribute for himself? No! God is already wise and wouldn't need to create it. Wisdom is obviously a person. It is described as a "master worker" so it is obviously a person. It is described as being there during the creation. Sounds a lot like Jesus to me.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-58833224488720780902011-04-14T13:25:30.435-07:002011-04-14T13:25:30.435-07:00When used figuratively (i.e., God is a rock, fortr...When used figuratively (i.e., God is a rock, fortress, love, etc. ) words in NT Greek and OT Hebrew do not necessarily agree with the gender of the person they are describing.<br /><br />Notice the figurative use of the neuter “Lamb” in Rev. 5:6; 5:12; and 6:1 for Jesus. (or “the Light” - Jn 8:12 - ). The masculine “Jesus” and “Christ,” etc. of his literal name and descriptions show that he is a male person in spite of the neuter articles and pronouns that must be used in the NT Greek to agree with the neuter “Lamb” (or “Light”).<br /><br />Even in Proverbs 8 we see that ‘amon’ (‘Master Worker’) is masculine and yet it is describing the feminine “Wisdom.”<br /><br />Perhaps more to the point is 1 Cor, 1:24 where Christ is called the power (masc.) and the WISDOM (fem.) of God.<br /><br />This common use of NT Greek (and OT Hebrew) is the reason that so many of those early writers (who actually spoke and used NT Greek), including trinitarians such as Athanasius, accepted Prov. 8:22ff. as applying to the Messiah. - see the first part of the above study.Elijah Danielshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13053062645377291813noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3653325549409648983.post-43219802757575503532011-04-13T11:05:48.351-07:002011-04-13T11:05:48.351-07:00Hmm I enjoyed the article, but I have one question...Hmm I enjoyed the article, but I have one question. If the chapter is taken figuratively, even poetically, saying that Wisdom (personified) was created,that wouldn't really be a problem would it? Since it is all in "poetic language"? While I personally would agree that it is BOTH, talking poetically of Wisdom, but at the same time incorporating the Lord Jesus (as many other scriptures did where many of the Jews were blind to when he DID arrive), I mean for example this guy's explanation: http://www.equip.org/articles/who-is-wisdom-in-proverbs-8-<br /><br />Personally I think he is simplifying matters and complicating matters more than necessary. But the point regarding the feminine gender use of the word has me puzzled.<br /><br />ThanksAnonymousnoreply@blogger.com