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Monday, April 1, 2013

'Sharp's Rule' Primer

Sharp's Rule: Primer

(From the RDB Files)

In an attempt to prove the trinity doctrine, Granville Sharp made up a rule in 1798. It is often called "Sharp's Rule" by trinitarians. It says, in effect, that when two or more words (nouns) in the original Greek New Testament (NT) text are joined by the word "and," they all refer to the same person if the word "the" (the article) comes before the first noun and not before the other noun(s).

For example, if we saw "the king and _master of the slave" in the Greek text of the Bible, it would always mean, according to Sharp, that only one person was being called both "king" and "master." ("King" and "master" are joined by "and" - - only "king" has the article.)

Sharp invented this rule after he noticed this particular construction (sometimes called a "Sharp's construction") was used with "God" and "Christ" in 5 places in the NT. If he could convince others that his "rule" was true, then they would think there was finally (after 1400 years of a "trinity" tradition) absolute grammatical Bible proof (see WALLACE study paper) that God and Jesus are the same "person"!

The 5 "proofs" of Jesus' Godhood according to Sharp are (in the literal wording of the original manuscripts):

(a) Titus 2:13: "of the great God and savior of us Christ Jesus"
τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ

(b) 2 Pet. 1:1: "righteousness of the God of us and savior Jesus Christ"
 δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ

(c) 2 Thess. 1:12:"the grace of the God of us and Lord Jesus Christ"
τὴν χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ

(d) 1 Tim. 5:21: "in sight of the God and Christ Jesus and the chosen angels"
ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ καὶ τῶν ἐκλεκτῶν ἀγγέλων

(e) Eph. 5:5: "...in the kingdom of the Christ and God"
ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ

Since the first noun ("God" in the first four scriptures) has the article ("the") with it and the following noun ("savior" in the first two scriptures) does not have the article ("the"), then (according to Sharp) God and Christ (the savior, etc.) are the same person!

There are a number of reasons why Sharp's Rule, as applied to these 5 "proofs," is invalid (See the SHARP study paper). One important strike against it is the fact that even many respected trinitarian NT grammar experts and translators have rejected it as a valid rule - e.g., see G. B. Winer; J. H. Moulton; C. F. D. Moule; Dr. James Moffatt (see Titus 2:13; and 1 Tim. 5:21); Dr. William Barclay (2 Thess. 1:12); and Roman Catholic scholar Karl Rahner (2 Peter 1:1).

In vol. 5, p. 257 the respected The Expositor's Greek Testament says: "In the present case [Jude 1:4], however, the second noun (kupiov [“lord”]) belongs to the class of words which may stand without the article .... A similar doubtful case is found in Tit. ii. 13.... Other examples of the same kind are Eph. v. 5 ... 2 Thess. i: 12 ... 1 Tim. v. 21 (cf. 2 Tim. iv. 1) ... 2 Peter i. 1."

 
For example, examine the following trinitarian Bible's renderings of these "Sharp's Constructions":

2 Thess. 1:12 - KJV; KJIIV; NASB; NAB (1970); MLB; LB; GNB; RSV; NRSV; NIV.

Eph. 5:5 - KJV; KJIIV; RSV; NRSV; LB; MLB; NIV; NEB; REB; GNB; TEV; NAB (`70,'91).

2 Tim. 4:1 - most trinitarian Bibles.

1 Tim. 6:13 - all trinitarian Bibles.

These many respected Bibles, translated by expert trinitarian New Testament scholars, clearly disregard Sharp's "Rule" at these (and other) places and show two persons being spoken of!

Notice Eph. 5:5, for example. Most trinitarian Bibles translate this example of Sharp's Construction: "in the kingdom of Christ and of God" - KJV; NRSV; RSV; NIV; NEB; REB; NAB; Douay; MLB; LB; GNB; TEV; The Amplified Bible; Third Millenium Bible; New Living Translation; New Century Version; God's Word; Holman Christian Standard Bible; Wesley's New Testament; Phillips; and the Webster Bible. This is not the way it would be translated if the two descriptions were of the same person! (At the very least it would be rendered more literally as "the kingdom of the Christ and God.") Instead it clearly shows two persons!

Even trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris notes, in discussing Eph. 5:5, that “It is highly improbable that Paul would introduce a profound, unqualified doctrinal affirmation (Christ is theos) in an incidental manner [such as here], in a context where the assertion is not crucial to the flow of argument.” - p. 262, Jesus as God, Baker Book House, 1992.

Also, 1 Tim. 6:13 is translated in trinitarian Bibles as: "before (in the sight or presence of) God ... and before Christ Jesus...". Although Sharp's Rule insists that this should be translated to show that it is speaking of the same person, it obviously is not! Most trinitarian grammar experts simply do not believe Sharp's Rule is a valid absolute rule!

Of the many reasons invalidating Sharp's Rule grammatically there are at least two of extreme importance - each of which is conclusive by itself.

(1) Prepositional Constructions (with phrases containing prepositions: "of God;" "in the Lord;" "God of...;" etc.) are known by NT grammarians to cause uncertainty of article usage. That is, if a prepositional phrase (including genitives) is attached to a word, that word may sometimes have the article ("the") and sometimes not have it -- without changing the intended meaning! (See A. T. Robertson, pp. 780, 790, 791; C. F. D. Moule, p. 117; J. H. Moulton, pp. 175, 179-180; et al.)

This means that the NT writers sometimes wrote, for example, "The God of me" (with article) and "_God of me" (without article) with exactly the same intended meaning. The definite article ("the") was ambiguous in such cases.

Therefore any grammatical rules which depend on the presence or absence of the article in the NT Greek must not use as examples those scriptures which use a 'prepositional' construction attached to a word (noun) in question if they are to be used honestly and properly.

But if you examine the 5 trinitarian "proofs" above, you will see that they all use such prepositional constructions: "of us" in (a) Titus 2:13 and (b) 2 Peter 1:1 is a "prepositional" genitive, and even "savior" itself is a genitive in both scriptures and literally means "of savior;" "Lord" in (c) 2 Thess. 1:12 is a genitive and literally means "of Lord" (as rendered in the Modern Language Bible; Living Bible; Good News Bible; Douay Version; New American Bible [1970 ed.]; and Barclay's Daily Study Bible); "Christ" in (d)1 Tim. 5:21 is a genitive and literally means "of Christ" (as in the Good News Bible [and TEV]; New American Standard Bible; Modern Language Bible; Revised Standard Version; and New Revised Standard Version); and "God" in (e) Eph. 5:5 is a genitive and literally means "of God" (as in the King James Version; Revised Standard Version; New Revised Standard Version; Living Bible; New English Bible; Revised English Bible; Modern Language Bible; New American Bible (1970 and 1991); Douay Version; New International Version; Good News Bible; and Phillips translation).

Therefore all 5 Sharp's "proofs" are invalid on the basis of prepositional constructions alone!

(2) New Testament scholars, including noted trinitarian NT grammar experts, point out that the use of proper names ("John," "Moses," "Jesus," etc.) also causes uncertain article usage in NT Greek. (A. T. Robertson, Grammar, p. 791, and Word Pictures, p. 46, Vol. iv; C. F. D. Moule, p. 115; J. H. Moulton [Turner], Vol. 3, pp. 165-167; et. al.)

So not only did the NT Bible writers sometimes use the article and sometimes not use the article with the very same intended meaning with the very same proper name (e.g. "the James" and "James"), but even when a proper name is used as an appositive it also causes irregular article usage with the other associated nouns. - Robertson, pp. 760, 791.

For example, when "Jesus" and "Christ" are in apposition to each other ("Jesus Christ" or "Christ Jesus"), they are nearly always (96% of the time - see SHARP study paper) written without the definite article in the writings of Paul regardless of "Sharp's rule" or any other grammatical/syntactical consideration!

If we examine the first 4 of the 5 "proofs" above, we see that the proper name "Jesus" is used as an appositive with the word in question in each case! In other words, "Christ Jesus" is the appositive for "savior" in Titus 2:13. This means sometimes "savior" will have "the" with it in such a situation and sometimes it won't (with no change in meaning). "Jesus Christ" is the appositive for "savior" in 2 Peter 1:1, and article usage (or non-usage) with "savior" in the original NT Greek in such circumstances is virtually meaningless. "Jesus Christ" is in apposition to (an appositive for) "Lord" in 2 Thess. 1:12. And "Jesus" is in apposition (at least) to "Christ" in 1 Tim. 5:21. These examples, therefore, are completely invalid as evidence for Jesus being God even if there were actually some validity to Sharp's "Rule" with proper examples! And the 5th example, Eph. 5:5, is incredibly poor in context alone. Even noted trinitarian scholar A.T. Robertson has to admit that the 'evidence' of Eph. 5:5 is doubtful - Word Pictures, Vol. 4, pp. 46 and 543. No objective person could accept it alone as real evidence of Jesus' Godhood!

Some PREPOSITIONAL examples found in NT Greek:

"The God of Abraham and _God of Isaac and _God of Jacob" - Luke 20:37.
"The God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob" - Matt. 22:32.
"James, _slave of God and _Lord Jesus Christ" - James 1:1
"By command of _God savior of us and _Christ Jesus" - 1 Tim. 1:1.
"I am the root and the offspring of David" - Rev. 22:16.

Some PROPER NAME examples found in NT Greek:

"having seen _Peter and _John" (no articles) - Acts 3:3.
"holding fast ... the Peter and the John" (both articles) - Acts 3:11.
"beholding the outspokenness of the Peter and _John" (Sharp's) - Acts 4:13.
"But the Peter and _John" (Sharp's construction) - Acts 4:19.

So we see the Bible writer who is recognized as the most knowledgeable in NT Greek (Luke) showing the great ambiguity of article usage with proper names. If we did not exclude proper names as valid examples, we would have to agree that either Luke believed Peter and John were the same person or that he was completely unaware of Sharp's Rule (or any first century equivalent)!

* * * * *

So, although we can find such constructions as "the king and master of the slave" where the first noun (with the definite article, `the') is the same person as the second noun (without the definite article), there is no grammatical reason that this must always be so. Such constructions as "the boy and girl" and "the President and Vice President" (found in Amendment XX [as ratified in 1933] of the Constitution of the United States of America), which refer to more than one individual, are just as grammatically correct in both English and NT Greek.

* * * * * *

Note: Although Watchtower Society (WTS) research and scholarship is usually at least the equal of (and often superior to) that of other sources, I have tried to rely most heavily on other sources in Christendom itself (preferably trinitarian) or my own independent research to provide evidence disproving the trinitarian `proof' being examined in this paper. The reason is, of course, that this paper is meant to provide evidence needed by non-Witnesses, and many of them will not accept anything written by the WTS. They truly believe it is false, even dishonest. Therefore some of the preceding information, all of which helps disprove specific trinitarian "proofs," may be in disagreement with current WTS teachings in some specifics (especially when I have presented a number of alternates). Jehovah's Witnesses should research the most recent WTS literature on the subject or scripture in question before using this information with others. - RDB.

10 comments:

Anonymous said...

Savior is used so rarely of Jesus Christ in the Pauline corpus that it is hard to see how it could be a proper name.

Personally, I think that on grammatical and contextual grounds the best translation would be "anticipating the blessed hope and the advent of our great God and Savior's glory, Jesus Christ"

Anonymous said...

According to 2 Timothy 1:16-17 and 4:6-13, Luke was with Paul until the end, which explains why Luke was so familiar with the words of Paul. Just as the words in Luke 22:20 favor the words in 1 Corinthians 11:25 over the words in Matthew 26:28 and Mark 14:24 regarding the Eucharist, likewise the words in Luke 9:26 favor the words in Titus 2:13 over the words in Matthew 16:27 and Mark 8:38 regarding the glory that will appear at the coming of the Lord.

The words in Luke 9:26 (the glory of-him and of-the Father) indicate that Luke understood the words in Titus 2:13 (the glory of-the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ) to mean that the glory of two persons (the Father and Son) will appear at the coming of the Lord.

It could be argued that Luke understood the words in Titus 2:13 to mean the glory of one person (the Son), and that Luke 9:26 (the glory of-him and of-the Father) is a composite of Matthew 16:27 and Mark 8:38 (the glory of-the Father of-him) and of Titus 2:13.

However, it is far more likely that Luke 9:26 (the glory of-him and of-the Father) means that Luke understood Titus 2:13 (the glory of-the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ) to be a reference to the glory of two persons (the Father and Son).

Anonymous said...

2 Thessalonians 1:12 (the God of-us and LORD Jesus Christ) and 2 Peter 1:1 (the God of-us and SAVIOR Jesus Christ) differ in one word (Lord versus Savior).

The reason that Dr. Wallace claims (on pages 236, 241, 272 and 283 in his 2009 book, Granville Sharp’s Canon and Its Kin) that the word “Lord” is more likely to be a proper name than the noun “Savior” is, and that 2 Thessalonians 1:12 therefore is more likely to refer to two persons than 2 Peter 1:1 is, is that he admits that 2 Thessalonians 1:12 refers to two persons, and that he is unwilling to admit that 2 Peter 1:1 likewise refers to two persons.

The reason that Dr. Wallace claims (on pages 236-237, 241, 272 and 283 in his 2009 book) that the word “Christ” in Ephesians 5:5 (the Christ and God) is more likely to be a proper name than the noun “Savior” is in Titus 2:13 (the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ) or in 2 Peter 1:1 (the God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ), and that Ephesians 5:5 therefore is more likely to refer to two persons than Titus 2:13 or 2 Peter 1:1 is, is that he admits that Ephesians 5:5 refers to two persons, and that he is unwilling to admit that Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 each likewise refers to two persons.

The other reason that Dr. Wallace claims that the word “Christ” in Ephesians 5:5 (the Christ and God) is a proper name is that he is unwilling to admit that Ephesians 5:5 is a singular personal NON-PROPER article-noun-and-noun configuration that refers to TWO persons, because he is unwilling to admit that Sharp’s Rule is not true.

Dr. Wallace states (on page 252 in his 2009 book) that the reason that the noun “God” is not a proper name in the Greek New Testament is (1) that it is sometimes written in the plural form in the Greek New Testament and (2) that it is seldom anarthrous (not preceded by an article) in the nominative case in the Greek New Testament.

Those criteria imply that the less a noun is written in the plural form, and the less the noun is anarthrous in the nominative case, the less the noun is likely to be a proper name.

Here are the actual facts.

In the nominative case, the noun “Christ” (not attached to the proper name “Jesus”) in Ephesians is anarthrous 20% of the time in the Critical Text (0% of the time in the Majority Text or Received Text), and the noun “Lord” in 2 Thessalonians is anarthrous 0% of the time, and the noun “Savior” in the epistles is anarthrous 100% of the time.

Also, whereas the noun “Lord” is sometimes written in the plural form, the noun “Savior,” like the noun “Christ,” is never written in the plural form.

According to Dr. Wallace’s criteria shown above, and according to the actual statistical facts shown above, the nouns “Christ” in Ephesians 5:5 and “Lord” in 2 Thessalonians 1:12 each is far less likely to be a proper name than the noun “Savior” is in Titus 2:13 or in 2 Peter 1:1.

Further, when discussing (in footnote 58 on pages 253-254 in his 2009 book) Titus 2:13 (the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ), in which Dr. Wallace wants the referent to be one person, Dr. Wallace admits that a proper name in the first position (the first noun) would not prevent Titus 2:13 from being required to refer to one person (according to Sharp’s Rule), but when discussing (in footnote 7 on page 237 in his 2009 book) Ephesians 5:5 (the Christ and God), in which Dr. Wallace admits that the referent is two persons, Dr. Wallace refuses to admit that a proper name in the first position (the first noun) would not prevent Ephesians 5:5 from being required to refer to one person (according to Sharp’s Rule), because he refuses to admit that Ephesians 5:5 is proof that Sharp’s Rule is not true.

In order to avoid admitting that Sharp’s Rule is not true, Dr. Wallace is forced to claim the opposite of what the actual facts indicate. His interpretive decisions are determined, not by the actual facts, but by the conclusions that he wants to reach (circular argumentation).

Anonymous said...

The significance of the type of singular personal configuration used is that the two singular personal nouns (referring either to two persons or to one person, depending on the context) are expressed either as one idea (article-noun-and-noun) or as two ideas (article-noun-and-article-noun) or as neither one idea nor two ideas (noun-and-noun).

Two singular personal non-proper nouns referring to TWO persons can be expressed either as one idea (the Christ and God / Ephesians 5:5) or as two ideas (the Father and the Son / 1 John 2:22) or as neither one idea nor two ideas (man and woman / Jeremiah 28:22 in the LXX).

Two singular personal non-proper nouns referring to ONE person can be expressed either as one idea (the God and Father / 1 Corinthians 15:24) or as two ideas (the Lord and the Teacher / John 13:14) or as neither one idea nor two ideas (servant and apostle / 2 Peter 1:1).

Two singular personal proper names referring to TWO persons can be expressed either as one idea (the Paul and Barnabas / Acts 13:50) or as two ideas (the Paul and the Barnabas / Acts 13:43) or as neither one idea nor two ideas (Paul and Barnabas / Acts 15:35).

A circular argument consists of (1) a false conclusion that the interpreter wants to reach and (2) a false premise that the interpreter invents as a basis for the false conclusion, in which the false conclusion and the false premise are based solely on each other (circularly) in order to circumvent the truth (the actual facts).

Sharp’s Rule is a circular argument.

The only reason that Mr. Sharp claims (without any factual basis) that a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration must always refer to one person (Sharp’s Rule / Mr. Sharp’s invented false premise) is that he wants the noun “God” to refer to the Son instead of the Father (the false conclusion that Mr. Sharp wants to reach) in Ephesians 5:5 (the Christ and God), 2 Thessalonians 1:12 (the God of-us and Lord Jesus Christ), Titus 2:13 (the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ) and 2 Peter 1:1 (the God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ).

The only reason that Mr. Sharp claims (without any factual basis) that a proper name functions differently in a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration than a non-proper noun functions, and that a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration that contains a proper name therefore is merely an exception to Sharp’s Rule instead of being a refutation of Sharp’s Rule (Mr. Sharp’s invented false premise), is that he wants Acts 13:50 (the Paul and Barnabas) not to be proof that Sharp’s Rule is not true (the false conclusion that Mr. Sharp wants to reach).

The truth (the actual facts) that is circumvented by the circular argumentation of Mr. Sharp is that a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration can, depending on the context, refer either to two persons, as in Acts 13:50 (the Paul and Barnabas), Ephesians 5:5 (the Christ and God), 2 Thessalonians 1:12 (the God of-us and Lord Jesus Christ), Titus 2:13 (the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ) and 2 Peter 1:1 (the God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ), or to one person, as in 1 Corinthians 15:24 (the God and Father), and that a proper name (the Paul and Barnabas / Acts 13:50) functions no differently in a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration than a non-proper noun functions (the Christ and God / Ephesians 5:5).

Anonymous said...

Dr. Smyth, whose credentials in the study of the Greek language exceed the credentials of any proponent of Sharp’s Rule, explains in sections 1143 and 1030 in his 1920 book that the most that can be said of any two nouns in an article-noun-and-noun configuration is that the two nouns are expressed as one idea (a single notion), the context being what determines whether the two nouns refer to one person or thing or to more than one person or thing.

Dr. Herbert Smyth (1857-1937)
A Greek Grammar for Colleges (1920)

1143. A single article, used with the first of two or more nouns connected by AND, produces the effect of a single notion: οἱ στρατηγοὶ καὶ λοχαγοί [THE GENERALS and CAPTAINS] … X. A. [Xenophon, Anabasis] 2.2.8 … ἡ τῶν πολλῶν διαβολή τε καὶ φθόνος [THE of-the many-ones SLANDER both and ENVY] … P. A. [Plato, Apologia] 28a. … περὶ τὰς ἑαυτῶν ψυχὰς καὶ σώματα [concerning THE of-themselves SOULS and BODIES] … X. A. [Xenophon, Anabasis] 3.2.20.

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.9:6:40:0.NewPerseusMonographs

1030. An attributive adjective belonging to more than one substantive agrees with the nearest … τὸν καλὸν κἀγαθὸν ἄνδρα καὶ γυναῖκα [THE beautiful and-good MAN and WOMAN] … P. G. [Plato, Gorgias] 470e …

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.9:6:22:0.NewPerseusMonographs

Just as the phrase “the beautiful and-good man and woman” in section 470e in Plato’s Gorgias (the example in section 1030 in Smyth’s 1920 book) expresses two persons as one idea, likewise the phrase “the beautiful and good Alan and Ava” would express two persons as one idea, because a proper name functions no differently in a singular personal article-noun-and-noun configuration than a non-proper noun functions.

The reason that Dr. Smyth and the other grammarians of Classical Greek do not say what Mr. Sharp says is that there is nothing to say, because what Mr. Sharp says is incorrect.

When two nouns are expressed in relation to a third noun that refers to one person or thing, the two nouns are often expressed as one idea via an article-noun-and-noun configuration in relation to that one person or thing. That is true in English, and it is also true in Greek.

In English, we see this.

The owner [one person] OF THE car and motorcycle [two things expressed as one idea in relation to the one owner]

The mother [one person] OF THE boy and girl [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one mother]

The marriage contract [one thing] OF THE husband and wife [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one marriage contract].

In Greek, and in the Greek New Testament in particular, we see this.

Ephesians 5:5 … the kingdom [one thing] OF-THE Christ and God [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one kingdom]

2 Thessalonians 1:2 … grace to-you and peace [two things] from God Father of-us and Lord Jesus Christ … 1:12 … the grace [one thing] OF-THE God of-us and Lord Jesus Christ [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one grace]

Titus 1:4 … grace and peace [two things] from God Father and Christ Jesus the Savior of-us … 2:13 … the glory [one thing] OF-THE great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one glory]

2 Peter 1:1 … righteousness [one thing] OF-THE God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one righteousness] 1:2 … knowledge [one thing] OF-THE God and Jesus the Lord of-us [two persons expressed as one idea in relation to the one knowledge]

The same two persons that are expressed in 2 Thessalonians 1:2 (God Father of-us and Lord Jesus Christ) are expressed as one idea in relation to the one grace in verse 1:12 (the grace of-the God of-us and Lord Jesus Christ).

The same two persons that are expressed in Titus 1:4 (God Father and Christ Jesus the Savior of-us) are expressed as one idea in relation to the one glory in Titus 2:13 (the glory of-the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ).

Anonymous said...

Genitive case noun forms are NOT prepositional constructions!
The prepositions supplied in translation into English do not occur in those texts discussed. Greek does have distinct prepositions, and those are the things referred to when speaking of prepositional constructions and the problems they may cause with the article.

tigger2 said...

I explained in my DEF study on John 1:1 concerning my use of "prepositional":

“(I am considering here NT Greek usages that are normally translated into English as possessive or prepositional constructions. Mostly they’re nouns modified by a genitive.)”

And,

“As Dana and Mantey tell us, “The use of prepositions, possessive ... pronouns, and the genitive case also tend to make a word definite. At such times, even if the article is not used, the object is already distinctly indicated.” - p. 137, D&M Grammar.

“This particular exception to regular article usage is so important in a proper examination of John 1:1c (or any other scripture which depends on the use or non-use of the article for a proper interpretation) that I have included the following lengthy examination for those who need more evidence:”

[See Footnote 8. in the following:
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/09/def-part-4-end-notes.html ]

Anonymous said...

In II Peter 1:1, the text should read "our Lord and Savior," NOT "our God and Savior." Codex Sinaiticus, the Sahidic Coptic, the Peshitta, the Harclean Syriac, and a few other Greek and Latin manuscripts. This is undoubtedly the correct reading because it conforms to Petrine usage. Peter always uses the expression "our Lord and Savior," never "our God and Savior"

For more info:

http://www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/trinity/verses/2Peter1_1.html

Melisa Marzett said...

Such a fascinating reading. Where did you get =CONCATENATE("";blog;"") this information from? It would be very good for me if you'll describe what was your sources for writing that.

tigger2 said...

The above study is a condensation of "Sharp's Rule" found in two parts on the right hand sideboard above. I have given sources there for all the grammatical information I used when doing my own study of this "rule."

If you have a question concerning a specific part of these studies, please ask.