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Wednesday, March 23, 2016

HS (Part 1)

Note: Although Watchtower Society (WTS) research and scholarship is usually at least the equal of (and often superior to) that of other sources, I have tried to rely most heavily on other sources in Christendom itself (preferably trinitarian) or my own independent research to provide evidence disproving the trinitarian ‘proof’ being examined in this paper. The reason is, of course, that this paper is meant to provide evidence needed by non-Witnesses, and many of them will not accept anything written by the WTS. They truly believe it is false, even dishonest. Therefore some of the following information, all of which helps disprove specific trinitarian “proofs,” may be in disagreement with current WTS teachings in some specifics (especially when I have presented a number of alternates). Jehovah’s Witnesses should research the most recent WTS literature on the subject or scripture in question before using this information with others. – RDB.
 

HS


Holy Spirit
 

The evidence used by some trinitarians to “prove” that the Holy Spirit is not only a person (rather than an impersonal force from God) but a person who is equally God with the Father in heaven usually consists of 4 main parts:

(1) p. 4 - “The Holy Spirit is referred to as a Person in the masculine gender throughout the New Testament.” - p. 70, Kingdom of the Cults, 1985, W. Martin.

(2) p. 10 - “Only a person can be directly quoted and can call himself ‘I’, first person singular [as the Holy Spirit does].... When the Bible personifies things it does not directly quote them.”

(3) p. 13 - “Not only does Jesus show the Holy Spirit, the Father, and the Son to be God at Matthew 28:19, but he also shows that there is only one personal name (singular) for all 3 of them!”

(4) p. 17 - “When Ananias lied to the Apostles in Acts 5, he also was lying to the Holy Spirit (Acts 5:3). And since Acts 5:4 says Ananias ‘lied not to men, but to God,’ our only possible conclusion must be that the Holy Spirit is God!”

Before examining these points, a sincere Bible student should be aware of the alternate view held throughout recorded history by the Hebrews and by the first Christians (for the first two hundred years, at least - see the HIST and CREEDS studies) and by Jehovah’s Witnesses today.

They believe that the Father alone is the Most High, only true God (John 17:1, 3) and he alone is named Jehovah (Ps. 83:18, KJV). The first Christians (and Jehovah’s Witnesses today) further said that Jesus was the very first creation by Jehovah (and the only one directly by God) and was, and is, the second most important individual in existence and the highest of all created things.

They further say that ALL things thereafter were created BY the Father (Who, alone, is Jehovah) through Jesus who, following Jehovah’s will and spoken commands, used Jehovah’s special active force (the impersonal invisible force called Holy Spirit) to bring all other things (angels included) into existence. This Holy Spirit can be used to create, to motivate, to observe, communicate, etc. Although far from a perfect analogy, we might compare the many things electricity and radiant energy can do.

Electricity is used to communicate, create, destroy, operate (as in remote control devices), and motivate (as used by man in heart pacemakers, artificial hands, and as found naturally in man’s and animal’s nervous systems, etc.). Lasers (which use a form of radiant energy) can also perform similarly varied tasks. Holy Spirit, of course, is infinitely greater than these two puny examples familiar to humans.

In the Old Testament (OT) it is clear that the inspired Bible writers intended holy spirit to be understood as an invisible, powerful force from God. Even many trinitarian scholars will admit that.

(We can even see the same understanding when the word “spirit” is used for the activating power or force used by other creatures. For example, Ezekiel 1:19, 20, speaking about the angels or cherubim who control the movement of God’s chariot, says literally, “and when the living creatures went, the wheels went beside them; and when the living creatures rose from the earth, the wheels rose .... for the spirit of the living creatures was in the wheels.” - RSV. It is clear that this means the controlling power of the cherubim moved the wheels. In fact the very trinitarian Good News Bible (GNB) paraphrases this to read: “the wheels did exactly what the creatures did, because the creatures controlled them.”)

For example, p. 269, The Catholic Encyclopedia, 1976, admits: “In the OT the Holy Spirit means a divine power ...”

And the New Bible Dictionary, Tyndale House Publishers, 1984, pp. 1136, 1137, says:
“Spirit, Holy Spirit. OT, Heb. ruah 378 times...; NT, Gk. pneuma 379 times.” And “Divine power, where ruah is used to describe...a supernatural force....” And “At its [the Old Testament’s concept of God’s spirit] heart is the experience of a mysterious, awesome power - the mighty invisible force of the wind, the mystery of vitality, the otherly power that transforms - all ruah, all manifestations of divine energy.” And “at this early stage [pre-Christian] of understanding, God’s ruah was thought of simply as a supernatural power (under God’s authority) exerting force in some direction.”
The Encyclopedia Americana tells us:
“The doctrine of the Holy Spirit [as a person who is God] is a distinctly Christian one.... the Spirit of Jehovah [in the OT] is the active divine principle in nature. .... But it is in the New Testament [NT] that we find the bases of the doctrine of the Spirit’s personality.” And “Yet the early Church did not forthwith attain to a complete doctrine; nor was it, in fact, until after the essential divinity of Jesus had received full ecclesiastical sanction [in 325 A.D. at the Council of Nicea] that the personality of the Spirit was explicitly recognized, and the doctrine of the Trinity formulated.” Also, “It is better to regard the Spirit as the agency which, proceeding from the Father and the Son, dwells in the church as the witness and power of the life therein.” - v. 14, p. 326, 1957.
And Britannica agrees:
“The Hebrew word ruah (usually translated ‘spirit’) is often found in texts referring to the free and unhindered activity of God, .... There was, however, no explicit belief in a separate divine person in Biblical Judaism; in fact, the New Testament itself is not entirely clear in this regard....“The definition that the Holy Spirit was a distinct divine Person equal in substance to the Father and the Son and not subordinate to them came at the Council of Constantinople in AD 381....” - Encyclopedia Britannica Micropaedia, 1985, v. 6, p. 22.
Yes, not only did God’s people, as described in the OT, believe the holy spirit was an active force and not a person, but that same belief prevailed from the time of the NT writers up until at least 325 A. D. when the Roman Church officially accepted and began promoting its new doctrine. To bolster this NEW doctrine they went to the NT to find “proof.” That vague, ambiguous “proof” is what we will investigate in this study.

Many historians and Bible scholars (many of them trinitarians) freely admit the above truth. For example:
“On the whole, the New Testament, like the Old, speaks of the Spirit as a divine energy or power.” - A Catholic Dictionary.
“The majority of NT texts reveal God’s spirit as something, not someone” - New Catholic Encyclopedia, p. 575, Vol. 13, 1967.
“It is important to realize that for the first Christians the Spirit was thought of in terms of divine power.” - New Bible Dictionary, p. 1139, Tyndale House Publishers, 1984.
“The emergence of Trinitarian speculations in early church theology led to great difficulties in the article about the Holy Spirit. For the being-as-person of the Holy Spirit, which is evident in the New Testament as divine power...could not be clearly grasped.... The Holy Spirit was viewed not as a personal figure but rather as a power” - The New Encyclopedia Britannica.
“The true divinity of the third person [the holy spirit] was asserted...finally by the Council of Constantinople of 381 A. D.” - A Catholic Dictionary.

Yes, the Council of Constantinople (381 A. D.) first officially decreed “the personality of the Holy Spirit”. - Cairns, pp. 142, 145; also see Encyclopedia Britannica, v. 6, p. 22, 1985 ed.

Famed trinitarian Church historian Neander notes in History of Christian Dogma:
“Though Basil of Caesarea [famed late 4th century trinitarian bishop - one of the ‘Three Cappadocians’ who were instrumental in further developing the trinity doctrine to the final form adopted at the council of Constantinople in 381 A. D. - An Encyclopedia of Religion, p. 794; and p. 237, The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, 1990 printing] wished to teach the divinity [deity] of the holy spirit in his church, he only ventured to introduce it gradually.”
There was a very good reason for the reluctance of the early Christians to accept this new doctrine of the Spirit:
“In the N[ew] T[estament] there is no direct suggestion of a doctrine of the Trinity. The spirit is conceived as an IMPERSONAL POWER by which God effects his will through Christ.” - An Encyclopedia of Religion, Ferm (ed.), 1945, p. 344.
In fact, Gregory of Nazianzus (another of the ‘Three Cappadocians’ whom trinitarian historian Lohse praises as being essential to the final defeat of the Arians at the Council of Constantinople),
“declared that it was the destiny of his time [381 A. D.] to bring to full clarity the mystery which in the New Testament was only dimly intimated.” - p. 64, A Short History of Christian Doctrine, Bernard Lohse, Fortress Press, 1985.
Trinitarian Gregory also admitted,
“But of the wise men amongst ourselves [Christians], some have conceived of him as an Activity, some as a Creature, some as God; and some have been uncertain which to call Him, out of reverence for Scripture, they say, as though it did not make the matter clear either way. And therefore they neither worship Him nor treat Him with dishonor, but take up a neutral position, or rather a very miserable one, with respect to Him. And of those who consider Him to be God, some are orthodox in mind only, while others venture to be so with the lips also.” - “The Fifth Theological Oration,” section 5 (page 616, Vol. 7, The Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers, second series, The Master Christian Library, Version 5 (software).
Noted Bible scholar Joseph H. Thayer gives these 5 meanings for the NT Greek word Pneuma (“spirit”):
“1. a movement of air, (gentle) blast.”.... “2. The spirit, i.e. the vital principal by which the body is animated.”.... “3. a spirit [person], i.e., a simple essence, devoid of all grosser matter, and possessed of the power of knowing, desiring, deciding, and acting....” [This definition includes] “c. a spirit[person] higher than man but lower than God, i.e. an angel.” “4. The Scriptures also ascribe a [pneuma] to GOD, i.e. God’s power and agency, - distinguishable in thought...from God’s essence [included in definition #3 above] in itself considered, - manifest in the course of affairs, and by its influence upon souls productive in the theocratic body (the church) of all the higher spiritual gifts and blessings.” [And] “5. Univ. the disposition or influence which fills and governs the soul of ANY ONE; the efficient source of any power, affection, emotion, desire, etc.” - pp. 520-523.
Obviously, Holy Spirit is placed by Thayer under definition #4 above: “God’s power” not “God’s essence”! On p. 522, Thayer further defines this Spirit:
“The Holy Spirit is a dunamis [Gr. - ‘power’], and is expressly so called in Lk. xxiv. 49, and ... Lk. I. 35.”
Thayer also explains the occasional personification of this POWER from God:
“In some pass[ages] the Holy Spirit is rhetorically [‘used without regard to some actual condition or negating the literal significance of the statement’ - p. 1946, Webster’s 3rd New International Dictionary, 1962 ed.] represented as a Person...Jn. xiv. 16 sq. 26; xv. 26; xvi. 13-15 (in which pass[age] fr[om] Jn. the personification was suggested by the fact that the Holy Spirit was about to assume with the apostles the place of a person, namely of Christ)” [In other words the HS was personified in these passages because it was taking the place of a person in some respects.] - p. 522, Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Baker Book House, 1977 (10th printing, August 1984).

And Catholic Professor, John L. McKenzie, S.J., writes:

"It is the power which drives Jesus into the desert (Mk 1:12...) and the power by which Jesus expels demons (Mt 12:28; Lk 11:20 ...)  ....

"In [Acts] the spirit is a divine, dynamic force;....

And in Paul's writings, "the spirit is basically the divine and heavenly dynamic force". - pp. 842, 843, Dictionary of the Bible, Macmillan Publ., 1979 ed.


The following two trinitarian (Protestant) publications present the process that led to acceptance by the Church of a doctrine that finally included the holy spirit as a person equal to God:
“Trinity, a word not found in Scripture but used to express the doctrine of the unity of God as subsisting in 3 distinct persons. Not only is the word ‘Trinity’ not in scripture, but there is no isolated exposition on this attribute of God in either testament. It is an inferred doctrine, gathered eclectically from the entire Canon.” - p. 630, Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, Bethany House Publishers, 1982.
“The word Trinity is not found in the Bible.... It did not find a place formally in the theology of the church till the 4th century .... Although scripture does not give us a formulated doctrine of the Trinity, it contains all the elements out of which theology constructed the doctrine.” - The Illustrated Bible Dictionary. (For a detailed account about the period when the church eclectically chose elements of the scriptures and “constructed the doctrine” in the 4th century A. D., see the HIST study.)

Now let’s look at some of the eclectic gatherings “from the entire Canon” that were used as a basis for the “inferred doctrine” of the trinitarian Holy Spirit.

(1) Is the Holy Spirit really “referred to as a person in the masculine gender throughout the New Testament” as Walter Martin (and many others) insists? - KOTC, 1985.[1]

It is true that the word for God (theos) in the New Testament is masculine, and masculine pronouns (“he,” “him,” “himself”) are always used with it. The word “Father” is also in the masculine gender in the original Greek of the NT, and masculine pronouns are always used with it. The word “Son” is also in the masculine gender in the NT Greek, and masculine pronouns are always used with it. Certainly this is not surprising since God (Jehovah, the Father alone) has always been represented to his people as a living, conscious being, and Christ (Jesus, the Son) is always represented as a living, conscious person. It would be very strange, indeed, if they were not so described!

But “Holy Spirit” in the original Greek is neuter and therefore the neuter pronouns meaning “it,” “itself” are used with it in the original NT Greek! Any strictly literal Bible translation would have to use “it” for the holy spirit (since it is really not a person, but God’s active force, a literal translation would be helpful in this case).

As the trinitarian New American Bible (Catholic), 1970 ed. admits:
“The Greek word for ‘spirit’ is neuter, and while we [trinitarians] use personal pronouns in English (‘he,’ ‘his,’ ‘him’), most Greek manuscripts employ ‘it.’” - New American Bible, St. Joseph ed., (footnote for John 14:17).
And the revised NAB of 1991 has actually changed “he/him” back to the literal “it”!

Also see An American Translation by trinitarians Smith & Goodspeed which uses “itself” and “it” for the holy spirit at Romans 8:16, 26, 27.

Here are the rules of Greek grammar that govern this situation. Professor Machen, writing in his New Testament Greek For Beginners, tells us:
“(II.) The noun for which a pronoun stands is called its antecedent. Thus in the sentence, ‘I see the disciple and teach him’, the antecedent of ‘him’ is ‘disciple.’
(III.) A pronoun agrees with its antecedent in GENDER and number.

“Examples: (a) Bleto ton matheten kai didasko auton, [is translated] ‘I see the disciple and teach him.’ Here matheten [‘disciple’] is the antecedent of auton [‘him’], and since matheten is of masculine gender and singular number, auton [αὐτὸν] is also masculine singular.“(b) Meno en to oiko kai ginosko auton [is rendered in English as] ‘I remain in the house and know it.’ Here oiko [‘house’] is the antecedent of auton [‘him’ in the original NT Greek] and since oiko is of masculine gender and singular number auton also is masculine singular [in the NT Greek]. In English the neuter pronoun ‘it’ is used, because the noun ‘house’ like all nouns denoting inanimate objects, is neuter in English. But in Greek the word for house is masculine, and therefore the masculine pronoun is used in referring to it. Hence the translations, ‘he,’ ‘she,’ etc...for the masculine and feminine of the Greek pronoun of the third person are correct only when the antecedents are denoting persons. In other cases, the pronouns will be neuter in English even when they are masculine or feminine in Greek.” - pp. 47-48.

In other words, even if the Greek words for ‘holy spirit’ were in the masculine gender (and, therefore, the Greek masculine pronouns would be used with it), it still would not indicate that the holy spirit must be a person! Just as in many other languages things are often given feminine and masculine genders in Bible Greek.

However, since its literal title (“holy spirit”) is really neuter in the NT Greek and really uses the neuter pronoun (“it”) and takes the neuter definite article (Gr. to), there is the extremely high probability, from grammar alone, that it is not a person.

If we search through a concordance that shows the gender of Biblical Greek words, we will see that, in the vast majority of cases, words that are used mainly to literally describe mature persons use the appropriate gender for that person [similar to Spanish and other languages]: “husband” (masculine), “wife” (feminine), “daughter” (feminine), “son” (masculine), etc.

Often the same basic Greek word is used for both sexes, but it will be given a feminine ending when applied to female persons and a masculine ending when applied to male persons: For example, “god” (theos - masculine) and “goddess” (thea - feminine), “prophet” (prophetes - masculine) and “prophetess” (prophetis - feminine), “king/queen,” etc.

And even when, on occasion, we find a word that is applied equally to men or women, the gender of that individual is still shown by the gender of the article or pronoun used with it: For example, “doorkeeper” (thuroros) can be used for both men and women, but, when it is used in the NT for a male, the masculine article (ὁ) comes before it: ὁ thuroros (John 10:3), and when it is used in the NT for a female, the feminine article (ἡ) comes before it: ἡ

thuroros (John 18:17). - Compare Mark 13:34 and John 18:16.

So, you see, in the vast majority (if not all) of cases a mature person’s gender is shown by the gender of the Greek words and titles that literally[2] describe that person and/or by the gender of the article and pronouns that go with that Greek word. [3]

But not only is the literal “Holy Spirit” neuter in the original Greek, but so are the article (to - p. 34, Machen) and the pronouns (αὐτό [‘it’] and ὅ [“which”]- pp. 19, 68, Marshall) which go with it! [4] - See John 14:17 and 1 Cor. 12:4, 11 in any interlinear Bible or Greek text, for example. Cf. Ro. 8:16 in KJV, AT, and The Interlinear Bible, Jay P. Green, Baker Book House, 1982.

The only exception to this that I have found deals with young, immature persons and animals. Young children sometimes are called paidion (“young child” - Matt. 2:8) and brephos (“infant” - Luke 1:41). These two Greek words are neuter and so are the article and pronouns that usually accompany them! Why these words are exceptions, I’m not certain.[5] Perhaps one was not considered fully a person (at least as far as gender is concerned) until he reached maturity. (At any rate, the Holy Spirit would certainly be considered mature if it were really a person!)

It is quite clear, though, (from going through a New Testament Bible concordance that shows gender and examining an interlinear text) that it is extremely rare, if ever, that a mature person is not distinguished by a noun (or its article and pronouns) which shows the appropriate gender. And, although the word for an impersonal thing is often given a neuter ending, it is also very common for an impersonal thing to be given a masculine or feminine gender in all those areas!

Most trinitarian Bibles, then, go against the bulk of the literal grammatical evidence when they use “he,” “him,” etc. in translating the original Greek neuter pronouns with “holy spirit” as their antecedent. There are a very few places, however, where the Greek appears to use the masculine article and pronouns with “holy spirit.”

If, when you examine the Greek text (as found in interlinear Greek-English New Testament Bibles), you occasionally find a masculine pronoun seeming to refer to the holy spirit, you will find that the actual antecedent is not “holy spirit” but some other noun (which, although representing a thing, does have the masculine gender assigned to it in NT Greek).

Even modern English is similar. If, for example, we have been speaking about death (an impersonal thing) and suddenly begin using the common personified figure for death, “the Grim Reaper,” even in modern English we properly change pronouns from “it” to “he.” E.g., “Death was fast approaching Mary. She could feel it coming. But when the Grim Reaper actually placed his hand on her and said, ‘it’s time, Mary,’ she drew on her inner strength, pushed him back, and said, ‘not yet!’ She wasn’t ready to accept it [death].”

The Greek word paraclete, παράκλητος, (rendered “comforter” in KJV; “helper” in some other translations) is in the masculine gender. So when paraclete is the actual antecedent (even though we understand that it may figuratively represent the holy spirit), its pronoun in the Greek must also be masculine.

We know that the masculine paraclete may be figuratively applied to an impersonal (neuter) thing as is so frequently done by the Jews in the languages used in the Bible. (See p. 37, Barclay’s Letters of John and Jude, “The Daily Study Bible Series,” The Westminster Press, Revised Edition, 1976.)[6]

See John 14:16, 26; and 16:7 for all the uses of “comforter” (paraclete - masculine) applied to holy spirit. You can see that the masculine pronoun (αὐτὸν) does follow “comforter” after the word was introduced as the antecedent in John 16:7 (remember, the Greek pronoun, as well as the article, must agree with its antecedent in gender in NT Greek).

Sometimes it is not easy to determine what the actual antecedent is, as it may have been introduced sentences earlier.[7] If we look at John 14:16, for example, we see that paraclete is introduced. This means that, in spite of the introduction of “the spirit” (neuter) in John 14:17, the pronouns in that verse could have referred back to paraclete in verse 16 as their antecedent, and, in that case they would have to be masculine in the Greek! Instead, they obviously refer to the neuter “spirit” in verse 17 and, therefore, must be the neuter αὐτό

(‘it’).[8] - see AT, Ro, Byington, and The Zondervan Parallel New Testament in Greek and English (literal translation).

Just the opposite may be occurring at John 16:7, 13. Although paraclete is introduced in verse 7 and “spirit” is introduced in verse 13 itself, the masculine demonstrative pronoun ekeinos, ἐκεῖνος, in verse 13 refers back to paraclete in verse 7 as its antecedent. Therefore, “he” is grammatically accurate in verse 13.

In any case, there is no real reason to regard the holy spirit as a person because of the figurative use in a very few places of the masculine paraclete.[9] (It’s too bad paraclete wasn’t feminine in the Greek, as it could just as well have been. The feminine verbs and pronouns that would have resulted in the Greek would not have been literally translated then!) The much more frequent use of the neuter “holy spirit” and its neuter article and pronouns more strongly indicates just the opposite! (This is similar to the figurative use of the neuter “Lamb” in Rev. 5:6; 5:12; and 6:1 for Jesus. The masculine “Jesus” and “Christ,” etc. of his literal name and descriptions show that he is a male person in spite of the neuter articles and pronouns that must be used in the NT Greek to agree with the neuter “Lamb.”)

When we combine the gender use for the holy spirit in the New Testament Greek with the gender use for the holy spirit in the Old Testament Hebrew, we have a doubly significant statement.

The inspired Hebrew writers of the Old Testament also used masculine and feminine gender for impersonal nouns. “In Hebrew only masculine and feminine gender are distinguished. There is normally no neuter.” - Handbook of Biblical Hebrew, LaSor, p. 75, v. 2, 1979.

“α 1. The Hebrew, like all Semitic languages, recognizes only two genders in the noun, a masculine and a feminine. Inanimate objects and abstract ideas, which other languages sometimes indicate by the neuter, are regarded in Hebrew as masculine or feminine, more often the latter [feminine]”! – Gesenius’ Hebrew Grammar, p. 222, Oxford at the Clarendon Press, 1910. (Emphasis added.) Also (seventeenth edition):

http://quod.lib.umich.edu/g/genpub/AHY1993.1853.001/160?rgn=full+text;view=image

 

Therefore, if the inspired Hebrew writers had understood the “third person of the ‘trinity’” to be equally God (masculine-Hebrew) with the Father (masculine-Hebrew) and the Son (masculine-Hebrew) or Messiah (masculine-Hebrew), they would have given the spirit a personal name, and literal titles and descriptions in the masculine gender!

Do we see a masculine designation and relationship for the holy spirit (as typified by “Father” and “Son” for the other “persons of the ‘trinity’”)? No, the holy spirit in the original Hebrew of the Old Testament is feminine! – Gesenius, Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon, pp. 571, 760. (Cf. W. E. Vine, p. 1077.)

This can be clearly seen merely by looking at the literal translations found in The NIV Interlinear Hebrew-English Old Testament (Zondervan Publ., 1985). For example, Nu. 11:26 is literally translated by this respected trinitarian reference work as: “And she [the Spirit] rested on them.” (Cf. Judges 3:10; 6:34; 1 Sam. 10:6; 11:6; Is. 11:2; 63:14; etc.)[10]

So, we can either take the feminine gender “spirit” in Hebrew to mean neuter (a thing), or we can take it literally to mean that “the trinity” has as its third “person” a Mother Goddess!

But how can we take the neuter holy spirit of the inspired Greek of the New Testament manuscripts and the feminine holy spirit of the inspired Hebrew of the Old Testament and insist that it is a person and that it should be interpreted as a person in the masculine gender?

Just as most trinitarian Bible translators don’t literally render the Greek as written by the inspired New Testament Bible writers as “it” for the holy spirit but instead render it “he,” they also don’t literally render the Hebrew as written by the inspired Old Testament Bible writers as “she.” Instead, many of them use the only other proper alternative: “it”!

At Numbers 11:17 we see: “I will take [some - NRSV, NJB, etc.] of the Spirit which is upon thee, and will put it upon them” - ASV (compare KJV, RSV, NRSV, AT, LB, NEB, REB, NAB, JB, NJB, Beck). The same usage is found at Numbers 11:25 in those trinitarian Bibles: “IT.” (Compare the Septuagint.) This is God’s Holy Spirit - Numbers 11:29. (Notice how the NKJV has avoided this truth.)

At Is. 34:16 the King James Version and the ASV render it: “my mouth, it hath commanded, and his Spirit, it hath gathered them.”

So, you see, even many trinitarian translations prefer the use of “it” in the OT to the only other honest pronoun alternative: “she”/“her.” Some trinitarian translations, however, care no more for the proper translation of the pronouns for the Spirit in the Old Testament than they do for it in the New Testament. So, some trinitarian translations such as the NASB and the MLB actually use “he”/”him” at those places in the Old Testament!

But there is something that is even more certain than the use of the gender with pronouns, articles, etc. associated with the holy spirit. That is the question of its/his personal name.

There is absolutely no doubt as to the extreme importance of a personal name in both the New and Old Testaments. A personal name took on an importance to the individual who bore it that we don’t totally comprehend today. If one were to die and his name be forgotten, this was considered much more horrible than the mere death itself! One’s personal name must be honorable, and it must be known and remembered!

We are urged over and over in the OT to know and respectfully use God’s personal name. Likewise, as important as the spirit is (whether it is God or not), if it is a person, it must have a personal name and we must know it! How could we even begin to know God - John 17:3 - and not even know his personal name(s)?

The literal title “High Priest” may be used as an excellent example. The title itself is masculine in the NT Greek to match the gender of the person holding that title. MASCULINE pronouns and articles always accompany that literal title. Being a title only it is often clarified by a personal name, especially if the person himself is considered to be of any importance. For example, the high priest is a nobody when compared with God Himself, and the term “high priest” is not used nearly as frequently in the Bible as “Holy Spirit.” And yet the “High Priest” is frequently further identified by his personal name: 2 Ki. 22:4; 2 Chron. 26:20; Ezra 7:5; Neh. 3:1; Jer. 52:24; Zech. 3:8; Matt. 26:57; Acts 24:1.

Surely, if the holy spirit were a person (especially a person who is God) he would be properly identified in at least one of the hundreds of scriptures which speak of the holy spirit! (We might also compare the title “God” [masculine form], which simply means “Mighty One.” This person is further identified nearly 7000 times, more than any other name, by the personal name “Jehovah” [masculine form] in the Holy Scriptures. We can also compare the title “Christ” and its further identification hundreds of times by “Jesus”.)

But, although we search both Testaments microscopically, we find no personal name for the neuter holy spirit. The personal name of God (”Jehovah” - the Father alone) is the most used personal name (by far) in the entire Bible! There can be no doubt about the extreme importance of the Messiah’s (or the Son’s) personal name (“Jesus”) and the frequency of its use by the inspired writers of the New Testament. But not once is the neuter holy spirit given a personal name! If those three are truly God, then the holy spirit has been grossly ignored and insulted by the inspired Bible writers!

But, some trinitarians insist, that is his personal name: “The Holy Spirit.” However, if we examine all the personal names in the New Testament, we will see that this is an impossible interpretation unless it is a “personal” name of an impersonal thing. (Some things are given proper names, for example: ‘The Titanic,’ ‘The Superchief,’ ‘The Holy Grail.’)

All actual personal names (compare the genders of hundreds of personal names listed in A Concise Greek-English Dictionary of the New Testament, published by the United Bible Societies, 1971) are given a gender that agrees with the gender of the person bearing that personal name as found in the New Testament scriptures - see Moulton, Vol. II, p. 152. So the name “Jesus,” for example, is in the masculine form in the New Testament Greek, and “Mary” is in the feminine form. God Himself is a spirit person in heaven whose literal descriptive title (“God”) is masculine and whose name (“Jehovah”) is masculine. The spirit persons who serve him in heaven have the literal descriptive title (“angels”) which is masculine, and all those angels whose names have been revealed to us have masculine personal names. (E.g. the Archangel [literal title - masculine form in NT Greek] has the personal name “Michael” [masculine form].) This is certainly not intended to indicate that they are masculine in a fleshly sense, but that they are truly individual persons of importance.

But “holy spirit,” as we have already seen, is in the neuter form. Therefore, if “holy spirit” is a “personal” name, that “person” has to be a neuter thing (or, in other words, “holy spirit” cannot be a personal name, but it could be a proper name for a special thing.)

There is no way around it. Either the holy spirit has no personal name (in which case it cannot be an extremely important person in Bible usage, and certainly not God Himself) or its proper name shows it to be a neuter thing. And, although ‘holy spirit’ is obviously a literal description, nevertheless, even if someone should insist that the neuter “holy spirit” is merely a figurative description of a person (such as Jesus being figuratively called “the Lamb” - Rev. 14:1 or “the Light” - Jn 8:12 - which are neuter), then, again, the holy spirit is never given a personal name and cannot be God whose personal name must be known, remembered, and respectfully used!

“Poured Out”

Let’s also examine Acts 2:17, 18 where God pours out [ekxeo, ἐκχεῶ] from [apo, ἀπὸ] his Spirit upon all people. This should be clear enough that the Holy Spirit is not a person. However, let’s look at all other uses of ekxeo used in the NT as listed in Young’s Exhaustive Concordance.

Mt. 9:17, the wineskins burst and wine pours [‘runneth,’ KJV] out [ekxeo]. (Mark 2:22 does not use ekxeo in the best manuscripts.) John 2:15, “poured out [ekxeo] the coins of the money changers.” Acts 2:17, 18, God “pours out [ekxeo] from [apo] His Spirit upon all people.” Acts 2:33, “he has poured out [ekxeo] this (thing) [touto, neut.] which you see.” Acts 22:20, the blood of Stephen was poured out [ekxeo]. Ro. 3:15, Feet swift to shed (“pour out” - ekxeo) blood. Titus 3:6, “Holy Spirit which he [God] poured out [ekxeo] upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior” (RSV). [This is also translated by noted trinitarian Beck as “He poured a rich measure of this Spirit on us through Jesus Christ our Savior” (Beck NT)]. Rev. 16:1, 2, 3, 4, 8, 10, 12, 17, pour out [ekxeo] (the contents of) the bowls of the wrath of God. In other words “wrath” was being poured out. Rev. 16:6, they poured out [ekxeo] the blood of saints and prophets.

Certainly in all other cases ekxeo (“poured out”) refers to things. It would be unreasonable to insist that this is not the case in Acts 2 (and Titus 3:6) also. We can see that if we pour out something from something, it can mean one of two things. If we said we poured out from our bowl, for instance, we actually mean we poured from a container which contained some substance (thing). We may have poured some of it or all of it. But if we said we poured out from our wine onto your roast beef, it can only mean that we poured a portion of our wine (out of some container, of course) onto the meat. We would not say we poured from our wine if we had poured it all out.

What was it that God poured out from his Spirit? Well, what did the people receive when God poured out from his Spirit? Acts 2:4, 33 tells us they received Holy Spirit! If, then, God poured Holy Spirit from his Holy Spirit as described in Acts 2:17, 18, it means he poured out a portion of his Holy Spirit, as rendered in the very trinitarian translations of the New American Bible (1970 and 1991 editions), the New English Bible, and the Revised English Bible. (It is similar to our pouring out some wine from our wine.) So God poured out some of his spirit here, some of it there, but certainly he still kept an infinite supply.

Also see Numbers 11:17, 25.
“[Jehovah] came down in the cloud and spoke to [Moses], and took some of the spirit that was upon him and put it upon the seventy elders; and when the spirit rested upon them, they prophesied.” - Nu. 11:25, RSV.
The literal “from the Spirit” here in the inspired Hebrew Bible language (see the trinitarian The NIV Interlinear Hebrew-English Old Testament, Zondervan Publ.) also means “a portion” of God’s Spirit was taken from one person and given to others, making them prophets in this case. See these trinitarian translations of Num. 11:17, 25: RSV, NEB, GNB, AT, NAB, JB, NRSV, REB, NJB, Mo, and Byington.

World-renowned trinitarian scholar, writer, minister, and Bible translator, Dr.William Barclay, discusses John 3:31-36 on pp. 144-146 of his book, The Gospel of John, Vol. 1, revised edition. He comments on Jn 3:34 (“[Jesus] speaks the words of God, for [God] does not partially measure [metron] out the Spirit upon him.” - p. 144):
“John goes on: we can believe what Jesus says, because on him God poured out the Spirit in full measure, keeping nothing back. Even the Jews themselves said that the prophets received from God a certain measure of the Spirit. The full measure of the Spirit was reserved for God’s own chosen one.” - From the popular The Daily Study Bible Series, The Westminster Press, 1975.
This is the proper interpretation of John 3:34, and even many other trinitarians will admit it. Some, however, realizing the importance of the meaning of metron here, attempt other renderings. But even the highly respected, trinitarian authority, the New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, admits that Dr. Barclay’s translation “best fits the context.” - p. 403, vol. 3.

Yes, metron here means “A measure (of length or capacity)” - Young’s Analytical Concordance, p. 650, Eerdmans Publ., 1978 printing. And Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance tells us about metron: “a measure (‘metre’), lit. or fig.; by implication a limited portion (degree)”- #3358, Abingdon Press, 1974 printing.

Spirit, then, is a thing that may be poured out, measured out, or given out in portions - you simply do not pour out a person in measured portions upon other persons!

Similarly examine Acts 10:38:

"...how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power; how he went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him." (RSV)

Notice that Jesus was anointed with holy spirit. You do not anoint persons with other persons! You anoint other people with things: oil, grease, blood, power, and holy spirit. Therefore the HS is a thing.

As a corollary, examine “baptize with HS” - Mark 1:8; Acts 1:5. And “Baptize in (literal translation) HS” - ASV; AT (Goodspeed); ERV; AUV; CLV; LITV; WEB; ACV; ABU; EJ2000; LIVING ORACLES; Noyes; Williams; http://studybible.info/search/ACVI/Acts%2011:16 .

………………………….

“Mind of the Spirit” - Ro. 8:27

Compare Ro. 8:5-9 (esp. note 8:6 & 8:27 in the interlinear) and …. Also see NASB 8:5-9, and f.n for 8:5-6 in NIVSB. 8:6 in KJV is ‘spiritually minded’ and ‘fleshly minded’ and NASB has “the mind set on the flesh” and “the mind set on the spirit.”(cf. RSV and NRSV.) “the spiritual outlook” (REB) “have their minds on spiritual things” - NJB. Also see Robertson’s Word Pictures, vol. 4, p. 373 (verse 6). Also see Insight-2, p. 405.


For Part two click here:
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2016/03/hs-part-2.html 


Thursday, December 17, 2015

John 1:1 - Links to Information

Click on any link to view much more information concerning John 1:1:

Links to JW.ORG Concerning John 1:1

John 1:1c Primer (Examining the Trinity)

DEFinite John 1:1c (Examining the Trinity)

Harner's JBL 'Qualitative' Article (Examining the Trinity)

HARNER: JBL 'Qualitative' Article Refuted (Examining the Trinity)

QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c) (Examining the Trinity)

SEPTGOD (John 1:1c and the Septuagint) (Examining the Trinity)

Logos (The 'Word') (Examining the Trinity)

"Was" and "Beginning" in John 1:1 (Examining the Trinity)

God and gods (from BOWGOD study) (Examining the Trinity)

Why Do Jehovah's Witnesses Understand John 1:1 to Read, "...and the Word Was a god"? (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

Is the New World Translation the only Bible to phrase John 1:1c as "the Word was *a* God"? (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

How Does The Coptic Text Render John 1:1? (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

The "Definite" John 1:1 (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

John 1:1 - A Number of Trinitaran Translations and Scholars Admit "a god" (Defending the NWT)

Defending the charge that the NWT translators made up a rule for the word for "God/god" (theos). (Defending the NWT)

NWT - John 1:1 (Defending the NWT)

Should John 1:1 read: "And the Word was divine"? (Jehovah's Witnesses Questions and Answers)

"and the word was with (pros) God."  (Jehovah's Witnesses Questions and Answers)

John 1:1 was examined by Origen in his "Commentary on John." (Jehovah's Witnesses Questions and Answers)

In Defense of the New World Translation. John 1:1 files (In Defense of the New World Translation)

John 1:1c - English translation: "The Word was a god." (Search For Bible Truths)

VIDEO: John 1:1 Part 1 and Part 2 (Search For Bible Truths)

IF God is a trinity, then how is it that “the Word (Jesus) was WITH God”? (John 1:1) (Search For Bible Truths)

Is the New World Translation the only Bible to phrase John 1:1c as "the Word was A God"? (Search For Bible Truths)

If Jesus is not God, how can he be a god? (Search For Bible Truths)

God and gods - What is a god and who have been called 'gods'? (Search For Bible Truths)

Video: "Early Jewish and Christian Monotheism - The Early use of "God" and the Christological Implications" (Search For Bible Truths)

Monday, August 31, 2015

Articles From JW.ORG That Refute Trinity 'Proof'-Texts


The following are links to information from JW.ORG that refute virtually every main so-called Trinity 'proof'-text that is used. Starting from Genesis to Revelation:

Gen. 1:26 

Gen. 1:26 - "Let Us Make Man in Our Image" (Insight-2 pp. 52-72; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002451?q=Logically+firstborn+Son&p=par

Gen. 1:26 - The Word (Insight-2 pp. 1200-1203; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004625?q=This+Word+or+Logos&p=par


Isa. 6:3

Isa. 6:3 - “Holy, holy, holy,” is no evidence of a Trinity.
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102000028?q=Holy+holy+holy+is+Jehovah+armies+Isaiah+6%3A3&p=par


Isa. 9:6 

Isa. 9:6 - God at Isa. 9:6 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Mighty+God+at+Isaiah+9%3A6&p=par

Isa. 9:6 -“Mighty God” and “Eternal Father” (ip-1 chap. 10 pp. 117-132; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102000030#p34


Isa. 43:11

Isa. 43:11 / 2 Pet. 3:18 - Savior (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Savior&p=par


Isa. 44:6

Isa. 44:6 / Rev. 1:17 - To whom do the titles “the Alpha and the Omega” and “the First and the Last” refer? (w09 1/15 p. 30-p. 32; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2009046?q=the+first+and+the+last&p=par


Micah 5:2

Micah 5:2 - Does that make him the same as God? (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=22:0-22:509


Mt. 28:19

Mt. 28:19 - Scriptures that mention together the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Scriptures+mention+Father+Son+Holy+Spirit&p=par

Mt. 28:19 - Is the Trinity a Bible teaching? (w12 3/1 p. 23; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2012173#h=3:0-6:465

Mt. 28:19 - Holy Spirit - How baptized in its “name.” (it-2 pp. 1017-1027; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004211?q=How+baptized+name&p=par

Mt. 28:19 - Baptized in the Name of Whom and What? (w10 3/15 pp. 10-14; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2010204#h=0:0-22:312

Mt. 28:19 - What does it mean to be baptized “in the name of the Father”, ‘in the name of the Son’, and ‘in the name of the holy spirit’? (w02 4/1 pp. 10-15; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2002243#p14

Mt. 28:19 - What does it mean to be baptized “in the name of the Father”, ‘in the name of the Son’, and ‘in the name of the holy spirit’? (wt chap. 12 pp. 110-119; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102002072#h=10:276-13:1162


John 1:1

John 1:1 - Was the Word “God” or “a god”? (w08 11/1 pp. 24-25; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2008812

John 1:1 - "The Word Was God" (bh p. 201-p. 204 par. 2; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102005153#p6

John 1:1 - “Those Who Are Called ‘Gods’” (g05 4/22 pp. 8-9; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102005283

John 1:1 - Is Jesus God? (THE WATCHTOWER APRIL 2009)
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20090401/is-jesus-god/


John 5:18

John 5:18 - What is the meaning of John 5:18? (rs p. 209-p. 220; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989240?q=What+meaning+John+5%3A18&p=par


John 8:58

John 8:58 - "The question of the Jews (John 8 verse 57) to which Jesus was replying had to do with age, not identity." (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=64:0-68:61


John 10:30

John 10:30 - In What Way Are Jesus and His Father One? (w09 9/1 p. 28; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2009652

John 10:30 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=107


John 10:33

John 10:33 (it-2 pp. 996-1001; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004182?q=False+charge+blasphemy&p=par


John 20:28

John 20:28 - What did Thomas mean when he said to Jesus, “My Lord and my God”? (Insight-2 pp. 52-72; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002451#h=26:0-27:1235

John 20:28 - Three verses after the account about Thomas, John explained that he wrote so that people “may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God”—not that he is God. (g05 4/22 pp. 8-9; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102005283?q=Thomas+exclaim+resurrected+Jesus&p=par

John 20:28 - Does Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God? (rs p. 209-p. 220; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989240?q=Thomas+exclamation+John+20%3A28&p=par


Acts 20:28

Acts 20:28 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=69:0-72:54


1 Corinthians 8:4-6

1 Corinthians 8:4-6 (it-2 pp. 5-20; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002391#h=26:184-27:971


2 Cor. 13:14

2 Cor. 13:14 - Scriptures that mention together the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Scriptures+mention+Father+Son+Holy+Spirit&p=par


Philippians 2:5, 6

Philippians 2:5, 6 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=78:0-81:448


Col. 2:9

Col. 2:9 - "Trinity" (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=82:0-86:417

Col. 2:9 - "Divine" (Insight-1 pp. 638-639; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001201?q=Colossians+2%3A9+apostle+Paul&p=par


Titus 2:13

Titus 2:13 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=87:0-91:61


Heb. 1:3

Heb. 1:3 - Has Jesus always reflected his Father’s likeness to the same degree? (it-1 pp. 1184-1187; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002149?q=Jesus+reflected+Father%E2%80%99s+likeness+degree&p=par

Heb. 1:6

Heb. 1:6 - Is It Proper to Worship Jesus? (g00 4/8 pp. 26-27; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102000250#h=4:0-12:464

Heb. 1:6 - Does the fact that worship is given to Jesus prove that he is God? (rs p. 209-p. 220; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989240#h=33:0-36:388

Heb. 1:6 - Obeisance to the glorified Jesus Christ (it-2 pp. 523-524; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200003293?q=Obeisance++Glorified+Jesus+Christ&p=par


Heb. 1:8

Heb. 1:8 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=92:0-95:888


1 John 5:7, 8

1 John 5:7, 8 (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=96:0-99:90

1 John 5:7, 8 - Spirit (Insight-2 pp. 1017-1027; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004211#h=17:0-17:958

1 John 5:7, 8 - How did water, blood, and spirit bear witness to the fact that “Jesus is the Son of God”? (w08 12/15 p. 27-p. 29 par. 13; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2008926?q=How+did+water+blood+and+spirit+bear+witness&p=par


1 John 5:20

1 John 5:20 - Who Is “the True God and Life Everlasting”?
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2004768#h=0:0-13:205


Rev. 1:8

Rev. 1:8 - Alpha and Omega (Insight; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200000208

Rev. 1:8 - Alpha and Omega: To whom does this title properly belong? (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Alpha+and+Omega&p=par


Rev. 22:13

Rev. 22:13 - Alpha and Omega (Insight; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200000208

Rev. 22:13 - Alpha and Omega: To whom does this title properly belong? (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276?q=Alpha+and+Omega&p=par

Wednesday, September 24, 2014

KJV and the Only Personal Name of God

KJV and the Only Personal Name of God

This was written primarily for those who believe the King James Version is the infallible, perfect word of God (and for those who wish to discuss it with them).

There are numerous problems with the accuracy of the KJV translation. For examples see the 1 John 5:7 study, and 1 Tim. 3:16 in the MINOR study.

This study however will concentrate on Ps. 83:18 in the KJV and the actual personal name of God.

1. The Hebrew text used by the King James translators is known as the Bomberg (or the Ben Chayyim) text. It may be found here online:

https://www.areopage.net/PDF/BibliaSacra.pdf  


Remember to read from right to left in Hebrew!

 Psalms p. 1055 - Ps. 83:16-18 (Ps. 83:17 - 19 in Hebrew text) YHWH  - :17 (last word) and :19 (next to last word in first line of :19)

Psalm 83:16-18 in the IB:

“Fill their faces with shame, and they will seek Your name, O Jehovah. Let them be ashamed and terrified forever; yea, let them be confounded and perish. And let them know - Your name (is) Jehovah - that You alone (are) the Most High over the whole earth.


2. This text used by the KJV translators contains the name YHWH (יהוה Strong's H3068) in Hebrew characters thousands of times.

3. The Most High God declares that his name is YHWH many times in this text.

4. The KJV translators 'translated' this name as ‘LORD’ (all-capitals) in nearly all of its thousands of occurrences in the Bomberg text.

5. In several places, however, these translators rendered it as ‘Jehovah.’

6. Probably the most important of these is found at Psalm 83:18 in the KJV (which is actually Ps. 83:19 in the Bomberg text used by the KJV translators).

7. Here is how Ps. 83:16-18 reads in the KJV:

“16 Fill their faces with shame; that they may seek thy name, O LORD.

“17 Let them be confounded and troubled for ever; yea, let them be put to shame, and perish:

“18 That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.” (Boldfacing added)

8. Notice how the name YHWH in the Hebrew texts (including the Bomberg text used by the KJV translators) as found in verse :16 (:17 in the Bomberg text) is translated in the KJV: “LORD.”

9. The actual word in Hebrew used for “Lord” and applied to God is “adonai” (ADNI in Hebrew characters). YHWH is an entirely different word, a personal name which means something like “He Will Be.” It is the only personal name that God tells us to use for him. And this is exactly what the ‘infallible’ KJV tells us in verse :18 (:19) - “…thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.”

10. Those who believe the KJV is entirely accurate must believe that ‘Jehovah’ is the only name for the Most High God. There should be no argument by them that it is mistranslated, mispronounced or should be ‘Yahweh’ or similar transliterations.

11. More important, it becomes obvious that the usual translation of YHWH in the KJV as ‘LORD’ (ADNI in Hebrew) is a serious mistranslation! OR, the translation of YHWH as JEHOVAH in several verses is a serious mistranslation! Either way, the KJV has seriously mistranslated and is certainly not infallible.

12. Although still not infallible, the American Standard Version (ASV) uses the KJV’s Elizabethan English but has corrected the thousands of uses of YHWH in the Hebrew text from the ‘LORD’ of most of the KJV verses to ‘Jehovah.’ The Divine Name KJB has done the same - http://www.dnkjb.net/

13. How can we possibly consider the KJV to be infallible (or even the best Bible available)?

Sunday, September 7, 2014

REDEFIN


REDEFINITIONS


(From the RDB Files)

The relationship between God and his people is frequently described by God as one of marriage. He is the “husband” and his true worshipers are the “wife.” As in a scriptural marriage the true worshipers (“the wife”) must be completely faithful to their head, Jehovah alone. When the worshiper(s) are unfaithful to him, God describes them as “adulterous,” “adulteresses,” “harlots.” He rejects or “divorces” such ones, and they are to be destroyed for their “adultery.” In spite of wanting to be in favor with the one true God, many of His people throughout history have also become enamored with false gods and philosophies and want to add these things to their worship. They have used different rationalizations to justify their infidelity or “adultery.” One of these rationalizations may be called “redefinition” since it takes a well-known term or concept and gives it a new meaning to help justify their “adultery.”

To illustrate, let’s imagine a country where men are in a 3-to-one majority over women. Women, however, have come to dominate in all areas including government. One of the laws of the land handed down through the ages is - “Monogamy must be maintained: One man can have only one wife, and one woman can have only one husband.”

Imagine, then, that Christina is married to Abbot. She knows the law of the land, but she secretly marries Sonny anyway. Later she also secretly marries Hollis. When all this is exposed, she declares that Abbott, Sonny, and Hollis are all her husband. In the one husband, she declares, there are three persons (all equally her one husband). The one woman became “one flesh” with her first husband. The two became one flesh. In like manner, therefore, the three men have become “one flesh” with the woman. Obviously, then, the 3 persons are actually one “husband” (one flesh) to the woman.

The women of this land really like Christina’s interpretation of the law (which is actually based on a redefinition of the terms “husband” and “monogamy”), so they declare that it is the correct legal definition. The law, then, appears to remain the same: only one husband for a woman. But now each woman can marry more than one man. It is still “monogamy” and she still has only one “husband” according to the redefinition. Of course up until this time the term “husband” had always meant one man, and “monogamy” had always meant “one man married to one woman.”

So everyone is happy now! Or are they?

If this law were simply made by humans to satisfy a need at the time, then it certainly can (and should) be changed as needed as time passes. But if this law were a command from the Almighty Supreme Deity and Creator of mankind, His creatures have absolutely no right to change its original meaning to suit their desires.

So this redefinition is, in reality, adultery. It is literal adultery on Christina’s part no matter how she redefines terms. It is literal adultery no matter what the rest of the nation says --- no matter what the “orthodox” is defined (or redefined) to be by the human judges, the spiritual leaders, etc. It is an adultery of the clear meaning of the original terms. It is an adultery of God’s law. It is “adultery” and “harlotry” in the nation’s relationship to God. And it is “adultery” in an individual’s relationship to God if she accepts this new “orthodox” redefinition of God’s law and marries more than one person (or even merely quietly condones this redefinition of God’s word for her fellows)!


The very same kind of redefinition has been used by trinitarians from the beginning (fourth century A.D.) to commit adultery in their relationship to the one true God. In order to ‘legally’ change the ‘orthodox’ knowledge of the only true God and Jesus Christ (which means eternal life - John 17:3), they have made up new meanings for (redefined) “God” and “monotheism”! And in the process they also had to redefine other terms such as (1) “beginning,” (2) “firstborn,” (3) “only-begotten,” (4) “image” [eikon and charakter], (5) “substance/essence,” (6) “eternal generation,” (7) echad, (8) ego eimi, (9) ehyeh, (10) harpagmos, (11) huparchon, (12) morphe, (13) Logos, (14) theos, (15) and even God’s only personal name (%&%*, “Jehovah” or “Yahweh”).


The only true God had always been revealed to His people as a single person. The word “God” as applied to the Creator had no other meaning than one single person! He was known as the Father, and his singular, personal name was “Jehovah”! There was no other meaning for “God” among the Israelites and all their sects (including Christians) until Christendom began to desire a “God” that conformed to the understanding of the very influential, “intellectual” pagan religions and philosophies of the time - (see the ISRAEL and HIST studies).

At this time (around the fourth century A.D. - hundreds of years after the deaths of the Apostles and even the “Apostolic Fathers”) Christendom developed and “legalized” the trinity doctrine of three persons being equally the one God - (see HIST study). To do this (and still claim to keep the Scriptures as the word of God) they tried to change portions of the Scriptures by adding and deleting certain portions as they made new copies. This was only partly successful for them. Over the centuries many of these have been discovered and restored to their original wording. But they also redefined and reinterpreted many parts of the Holy Scriptures. This was more successful for them, although they still had to claim the new doctrine as a “Mystery” that could not be understood since it was still so contradictory, confusing, and unreasonable.

First, of course, the word “God” was redefined by them from the originally intended and understood “single-person” meaning to a “multiple-person” meaning. (This, of course is parallel with our example of the adulterous woman above. She redefined “husband” from the originally intended and understood “single person” meaning to a “multiple-person” meaning.)

Along with this the term “monotheism” had to be redefined (much as “monogamy” in the example above )[A]. What had been considered from the first as “the belief in one person only as the only Most High God” was now redefined as “the belief in one God (who is composed of many individuals).” Now Christendom could have as many persons who were “God” as they liked - the very essence of the highly influential “upper class” polytheistic pagan religions surrounding them - see the HIST study.

This is exactly what the adulterous nation in our example did: “monogamy” was redefined from its original meaning of “marriage of one person to another single person” to “marriage of one person to one multiple-person ‘husband’”!)

In reality, of course, this is merely a method of applying the word “monogamy” to the paganistic practice of polygamy[B]

In the very same way the redefining of the word “monotheism” by Christendom is merely a method of applying the word “monotheism” to the paganistic practice of polytheism![C]



Some Examples of Trinitarian Redefinition

(1) “Beginning” (arkhe in NT Greek). In the writings of the Apostle John there was only one meaning for the NT word arkhe: “beginning.” True, a few NT writers (Paul and Luke) occasionally gave different meanings (“magistrate,” “power,” “principality,” “principle,” “rule” according to Strong’s Concordance) for this word, but John, in all his writings, did not. And he always used other words for “ruler” and “source.”

Many trinitarians, however, had to redefine John’s intended meaning for this NT Greek word because of one scripture: Rev. 3:14. Since the doctrine of Jesus and God that they had invented insisted that Jesus had always existed, they could not allow the originally-intended meaning of John that Jesus was the “beginning of God’s creation.” Instead, they redefined John’s intended meaning of arkhe as either “source” or “ruler” - see NIV; NEB; NAB; LB; GNB. For evidence that this is a false interpretation of John’s intended meaning for this scripture see the BWF study.

(2) “Firstborn” (prototokos in NT Greek). This word in the scriptures has never meant anything but what it literally says: “the one born (or produced) first”! In fact, it is even paralleled in scripture by “the beginning of his father’s [creative or procreative] power” (e.g. Gen. 49:3, which of course also parallels the description of Jesus in #1 above: “The beginning of God’s [Jesus’ Father’s] creation”). Instead, some trinitarians have redefined this word as “the pre-eminent one.” They did this, again, because of one scripture: Col. 1:15. Paul here calls Jesus: “the firstborn of creation”! Since this also clearly means Jesus was the first creation of God (like Rev. 3:14 above), they were forced to redefine prototokos (but only at Col. 1:15). For evidence of the impropriety of this interpretation see the BWF study.

(3) “Only-begotten” (monogenes in NT Greek). This word in the scriptures has never meant anything but what it literally says: “the only one born (or generated)”! It is used in scripture to describe one who is the only offspring of a parent. It would not be applied to an adopted child, for instance, but only to the one who, alone, was actually produced, generated, or created by that parent. Instead, some trinitarians have redefined this word as “only” so that “the only-begotten Son” can now be interpreted as “the only Son.” This was done in an attempt to allow for the interpretation that Jesus has always existed and was never created or produced by the Father (although the clear significance of the word ‘Son’ itself even testifies otherwise). For evidence of the impropriety of this trinitarian redefinition see the OBGOD study.

(4) “Image” (eikon and charakter). These words are sometimes applied to Jesus Christ as the “image of God” or the “stamp of God” (as in the stamped impression of a king, president, etc. found on a coin). - 2 Cor. 4:4 and Heb. 1:3.

As any objective person would immediately admit, an image (or stamped impression) of something is merely a representation of the real thing. It cannot actually be the real thing itself simply because it is an image of the real thing! The Greek words above that are applied to Jesus mean, then, that Jesus cannot actually be God!

But trinitarians have “redefined” these terms to mean (only when applied to Jesus, of course) that somehow the image really is the thing it represents! See the IMAGE study (section #2 and endnote #6).


(5) “Substance/essence” (substantia, ousia, and homoousia [“same substance/essence”]). Ousia is used only twice in scripture and means “estate” as in the sense of “possessions, property” - Luke 15:12, 13, NASB; “property,” RSV; cf. NIV. However, those who actually invented the trinity doctrine and forced it upon the rest of the world of Christendom (Council of Nicaea - 325 A. D. and Council of Constantinople - 381 A. D.) desperately sought for justification of their theory of God. So they appealed to the writings of earlier Christians, in particular the extremely influential Origen. Homoousia (never used in Scripture at all!) was apparently used in the paganistic Gnostic religion to describe how “the heavenly powers shared in the divine fullness,” but Origen used it (before 231 A.D.) in the sense of “a unity of will” (see #7, “one,” below). So when the trinitarians appealed to the writings of Origen to justify their “unity of substance” of the Father and Son, they were actually redefining Origen’s well-known (at that time) intended meaning for the term. They also appealed to the writings of Tertullian and his use of “unity of substantia” of the Son of God with God. But, again, trinitarians actually redefined Tertullian’s intended meaning for the word. See the HIST study, notes #86-88 and #105-108.


As an example, here’s a quote from Origen’s Origen De Principiis, IV, 1, 36:
“Everyone who participates in anything, is unquestionably of one essence and nature with him who is a partaker of the same thing. For example, as all eyes participate in the light, so accordingly all eyes which partake of the light are of one nature.” - p. 381, Vol. 4, The Ante-Nicene Fathers, Eerdmans Publishing, 1989 printing.
So according to Origen’s own example of “one nature”: the bird, cat, man, and angel who are all watching the same light are “of one essence and nature”! All it means is that two or more things have something in common! My dog and I enjoying a swim in the same pond are “of one ‘essence’ and nature” according to Origen’s usage! My beautiful daughter and her cat, Moose, who are both frightened by the same vicious dog are “of one ‘essence’ and nature”!

Apparently even as early as 268 A.D. this term had come to have a different meaning for some Christians. Noted scholar (and trinitarian) Robert M. Grant tells us that the Bishop of Antioch, Paul of Samosata, “seems to have been willing to speak of the Logos [the Word] as homoousios with the Father; this notion too was condemned at the final synod of 268.” Grant tells us that this same Council or Synod of 268 A.D. also excommunicated Paul of Samosata! - Augustus to Constantine, p. 218, Harper and Row, 1970.

It would be strange indeed if those Christians who condemned this doctrine believed that homoousios was intended to mean by Paul what it had meant for Origen (and other early Christians). They surely would not have disagreed with the statement that the Word (Logos) was united in will [homoousios] with the Father as Origen and others taught.

Therefore these Christians must have known that the heretical Bishop was intending a new meaning that God and the Word were of one substance in a more literal sense that suggested that Jesus was equally God (and they most emphatically denied that teaching!). At any rate, it is certainly significant that this council so strongly condemned the concept that the Logos was homoousios in a new literal sense with God as late as 268 A.D.!
“The trinity of persons within the unity of nature [substance/essence] is defined in terms of ‘person’ and ‘nature’ which are G[reek] philosophical terms; actually the terms do not appear in the Bible. The trinitarian definitions arose as the result of long controversies in which these terms and others such as ‘essence’ and ‘substance’ were erroneously applied to God by some theologians.” - Dictionary of the Bible by trinitarian J. L. McKenzie (New York: Macmillan Publishing Co., 1965), p. 899.
(6) “Eternal generation.” This, also, is a completely non-scriptural term. However, many trinitarians were unable to deny that Scripture showed that the Son was generated or produced by the Father. They needed a redefinition of this idea to protect their “the Son has existed eternally” idea. So they turned to Origen, again, pointed to his use of the term “eternal generation,” and claimed that this, somehow, meant that, although the Son had been “generated” by the Father, he, nevertheless, had existed eternally. However, as they well knew at that time, Origen did not intend such a meaning. Trinitarian Church historian, Bernard Lohse admits that Origen intended a different meaning for “eternally generated” from what later trinitarians changed it to:
“It has thus an entirely different foundation from that of a similar idea found in the later theology of the Trinity” - p. 47, A Short History of Christian Doctrine, 1985, Fortress Press.
(7) “One” (echad in OT Hebrew). This ancient Hebrew word was used, in this form, echad, to mean numerical oneness. For example, “one cow” would be written as “echad cow.” It was used hundreds of times in scripture and, in this form, never meant “a multiple unity,” “a plural oneness,” etc. However, trinitarians were worried about the clear statement at Deut. 6:4 - “Jehovah is our God, Jehovah is one [echad].” God’s chosen people from the time of Moses to the time of the first Christians (in fact Judaism from its beginning down to today still has the same understanding) understood this as meaning God is one person only - Jehovah, the Father! So some trinitarians redefined the clear meaning of echad as “multiple oneness” so they could “interpret” this scripture as “Jehovah [or the LORD] is a multiple oneness” or “a plural unity.” This is a completely false and dishonest translation of echad. - See the ECHAD study.

Also “one” in the NT Greek at John 10:30 has been redefined by many trinitarians. When Jesus said ‘the Father and I are one,’ he clearly meant ‘we are one (or united) in purpose and will.’ - see the ONE study. But you know, of course, what many (most?) trinitarians say this means.

(8) ego eimi (literally, “I am”). There is no doubt that this term is usually translated into English as “I am” (occasionally “I was,” “I have been,” or “it is I”). But at John 8:58 trinitarians want it to mean much more. Among other claims they make for this term at this scripture, many trinitarians claim that since the clause ends with the words “I am” in this scripture this, somehow, makes it “Absolute”! Being “Absolute” causes it to mean, they claim, “I am eternally existent” or “I have existed eternally.” There is absolutely no valid reason to invent such a meaning (or redefine “I am”)! We only have to look at other places where ego eimi is “Absolute” to see that this redefinition is absolute nonsense. 2 Kings (2 Samuel in English Bibles) 15:26 - King David uses the “Absolute” ego eimi “Behold, I AM” - Septuagint. Is. 6:8 - Isaiah identifies himself with the same “Absolute” ego eimi “Behold, I AM” - Septuagint. And, in the New Testament, John 9:9 - The ex-blind man identifies himself with the “Absolute” ego eimi “I am he” - KJV, ASV.


And even when we examine Jesus’ use of this “Absolute” ego eimi, we find the same thing. John 6:20 - Jesus identifies himself to his frightened disciples, who think he is an apparition, by using the “Absolute” ego eimi “It is I” - KJV, RSV. No trinitarian Bible ever interprets Jesus’ identification of himself here as “I am eternal” (and it would be incredibly ludicrous if it did)! Also see John 18:5,8. These (and many other instances of the “Absolute” ego eimi) plainly do not mean “I am eternal,” so why should any honest, rational Bible student claim it must mean that at John 8:58? - See the I AM study.


Some trinitarians have used this same redefinition for another “be” verb: en (hn in NT Greek characters) which is usually translated “was.” They insist that the “was” (hn) found in Jn 1:1 must be defined as meaning that the Word (Jesus) was “eternally” with God and “eternally” was God. This is as ludicrous and dishonest as the above redefinition. -see "Was" and "Beginning" in John 1:1 .

(9) Ehyeh in OT Hebrew. This word means (and is nearly always rendered into English) “I will be” every time it is used in the Scriptures. More important, for discussions of Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58, It is ALWAYS rendered as “I will be” in all of Moses writings! However, trinitarians have redefined this word to mean “I Am” (at Exodus 3:14 only). They have done this in an attempt to provide some basis for a trinitarian “I Am” reasoning for John 8:58. But the word simply does not mean “I am” at Ex. 3:14, and its Greek translation at Ex. 3:14 in the ancient Septuagint (ca. 200 B.C.) also does not mean “I am” (even though some dishonest trinitarians claim it is the very same Greek wording used by Jesus at John 8:58)! - See the I AM study.

(10) Harpagmos in NT Greek. This word occurs only once in the NT at Phil. 2:6. However, it occurs 16 times in the ancient OT Greek Septuagint. In every case it means “taking something by force” or “something taken by force.” We know that the NT Greek word from which harpagmos derived (harpazo) means the “act of seizing or something seized.” It invariably has the meaning of “forceful seizure”: taking something forcefully from someone against his will.

But many trinitarians have redefined this word at Phil. 2:6 because its true meaning disproves the trinity doctrine. So they give harpagmos the new meaning of “cling to,” “held onto,” “retained,” “grasped,” etc. - See the PHIL study.

(11) Huparchon in NT Greek. Although this NT Greek word literally means “under a beginning,” it is commonly translated as one of the “be” verbs (“is,” “was,” “being,” “existed”). However, some trinitarians insist that it means an endless existence! The only time they insist on this meaning is when it is found at Phil. 2:6! It is not difficult to find other uses of this term in the NT. They not only never mean “an eternal pre-existence” or “continuing to exist eternally,” but they clearly are speaking of things that have come into existence. Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance (trinitarian) even defines huparchon as “to BEGIN under (quietly). i.e. come into existence” - #5225.

In other words, the honest, intended meaning for huparchon could be brought out by translating it into English as “came into existence” but not as “always existed” (or anything comparable)! This means that Phil. 2:6 could be honestly translated “Who, though he came into existence [huparchon] in the form of God (or ‘a god’), did not even consider forcefully seizing [harpagmos] equality with God.” It cannot be honestly translated (with the trinitarian-redefined huparchon) as “he always [huparchon] had the nature [form] of God.” - TEV. See the PHIL study.

(12) Morphe in NT Greek. A few trinitarian “scholars” even attempt to redefine morphe (again, only at Phil. 2:6) as including the idea of absolute “essence” or “nature”! The word actually is defined in NT lexicons of respected trinitarian scholars as “form in the sense of outward appearance” and “the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision” (cf. Mark 16:12).

So morphe is not honestly translated with its trinitarian-redefined meaning: “he always had the nature [morphe] of God.” - TEV. Instead, an honest translation of Phil. 2:6 could be “he came into existence [huparchon] with the outward appearance [“form” - morphe] of God [or ‘a god’].” - See the PHIL study.

(13) Logos (“Word” in NT Greek). This NT Greek word is used by John in the prologue of his Gospel (Jn 1:1-18). He uses it in a way that is not used elsewhere in the New or Old Testament, but he assumes that his readers (late first century Jews) already understand that term since he does not explain it. It is obvious from the way John uses this Logos that it is meant to describe Jesus’ heavenly pre-existence. Jn 1:1 tells us that the Logos (“the Word”) was with God in the beginning. And it even says that the Logos was theos (“God” or “a god” in NT Greek). Trinitarians have interpreted this to mean that John was using the Logos concept of Greek paganism. Therefore, many of them say, John really meant “The Logos was God”! They say that the paganistic Greek Logos was understood to be God, so John, likewise, used the term in that way.

However, it is unlikely that John would use such a pagan term or that he would expect his Jewish readers (who were forbidden by the Holy Scriptures to even read or study such things) to understand such a meaning for that term. But even if he did, the Logos was still not equally God, even in Greek paganism.

There is a meaning for Logos, however, that was popularly known by first and second century Jews. This is the Logos concept taught by the famed first century Jewish scholar Philo. Philo accepted the Holy Scriptures as the infallible, inspired word of God. He tried to teach all men (including the Greeks and Romans) that the Scriptures were the teachings of the only true God, the Father alone. So he adapted (redefined) some of the terms the Greeks were already familiar with (including Logos) to conform to the truth of the Bible. His teachings became very popular among Jews throughout the ancient world.

It is very important to know that the Logos of Philo which most Jews were familiar with, unlike the Logos of paganism, was described by such terms as John used to describe his Logos. These terms include “Son of God” [Jn 1:34]; one who is “with God” [Jn 1:1]; “light” [Jn 1:4]; “manna” [Jn 6:31-51]; “shepherd” [Jn 10:11]; “Paraclete” (‘Comforter,’ ‘Advocate,’ ‘Helper’) [1 Jn 2:1]; one “through [dia] which the cosmos originated” [Jn 1:3]; and one “from which drawing water one may find eternal life instead of death” [Jn 4:14], etc.

But most important, for this discussion, the well-known Jewish Logos of Philo specifically called the “the Word” theos. As all commentators on Philo’s Logos doctrine will attest (including all trinitarians who are willing to discuss it at all), Philo never used the definite article with theos when he intended it to be used for the Logos. Furthermore, he intended the meaning of “a god” by this usage, whereas he always used the definite article with theos when he intended it to be used for God!

So when trinitarians say John intended the meaning of “the Word (Logos) was God” at John 1:1, they are redefining John’s original meanings of both Logos and theos.


(14) the anarthrous (without the definite article) theos (see the BOWGOD study) as found at John 1:1. - Also see the LOGOS and PRIMER studies.


Of course trinitarians have had to redefine many other terms. Perhaps the worst of all trinitarian redefinitions, however, is the actual changing of God’s Most Holy Personal Name. Men may have many titles: President; Boss; Judge; Senator; Doctor; Admiral; Lord; Brother; etc. But every individual person has only one personal name: Theodore Roosevelt; Isaac Newton (“Sir” is a title); Thomas Jefferson; Moses; Joshua; Jesus. Yes, “Jesus” is the only personal name of the Christ (title), the Son of God (title), our Savior (title) and King (title). This personal name has the literal meaning of “Jehovah is the Savior” or “Jehovah Saves.” Think of the sacrilege, the blasphemy of actually redefining Jesus’ very own personal name. 


What should we think of anyone who actually rewrote the original manuscripts of the NT by “translating” every instance of the thousands of uses of the personal name “Jesus” found in the inspired scriptures as “LAMB”? Then the name “Jesus” would no longer appear in the thousands of places it was originally written at God’s direction and command. For example Luke 1:31 would now read:
  “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name the LAMB,”
and Phil. 2:10, 11 would now read:
“That at the name of the LAMB every knee should bow .... and that every tongue should confess the Christ, the LAMB is Lord”!
Wouldn’t this be an obvious example of blasphemous redefinition?

(15) Well, then, the very same thing is even more blasphemous when it concerns the only personal name of God himself, “Jehovah” (which has the literal meaning of “He Who Will Be”)! Of the nearly 7000 times the inspired Bible writers used God’s only personal name in the Scriptures, most trinitarian Bibles (e.g., RSV, NASB, NIV, GNB) have redefined them all as the LORD. Some, such as the KJV, have used the proper translation of “Jehovah” (English form) or “Yahweh” (possible Hebrew form) fewer than ten times and then redefined the 6000 (plus) other instances as “the LORD”! They have done this in spite of the fact that God has commanded that his holy personal name be known and used forever!

“Yes, tell [the Israelites], JEHOVAH, the God of your ancestors .... This is my eternal name, to be used throughout all generations.” - Ex. 3:15, Living Bible.

“Fill their faces with shame; that they may seek thy name O LORD
[“Jehovah”]. Let them be confounded and troubled for ever; yea, let them be put to shame, and perish: That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.” - Ps. 83:16-18, KJV.


True, such redefinition helps trinitarians “interpret” scriptures which would otherwise disprove the trinity, but think of the consequences!

* * * * * *

The real effect of redefining the words used in the inspired Holy Scriptures is that of spiritual adultery. We must be no part of such blasphemous disobedience, dishonesty, and deceit. Those early fourth century Christians who desired the attractive trappings of the world (which included the multiple godhead favored by the surrounding very powerful, very influential pagan nations) became “adulteresses” to the one true God, their “husband and owner”! - See the HIST study paper.
“Do you not realize, you adulteresses, that friendship with the world is enmity toward God? Therefore, whoever determines to be a friend of the world becomes God’s enemy.” - James 4:4, The Modern Language Bible. We must not participate in the process of blasphemous redefinition, of course. But we must also not continue to teach them or even seem to condone them by our silence or passivity. If we remain (with the “many”) members of an organization that teaches such things, we are condoning those things. Our very presence (or even our name on the membership list) is reinforcing that blasphemy.

And, certainly, if we participate in (or even condone by our silence or passivity) the redefining of the very knowledge of God Himself, we are committing “adultery” in the highest sense and establishing ourselves with the “many” in the middle of the broad road that leads to eternal destruction.

“...those who are real worshippers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth.... God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.” - Jn 4:23, 24, NEB.
“Father, .... this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God...” - Jn 17:1, 3, KJV.
“The Lord Jesus shall be revealed ... taking vengeance on them that know not God ... with everlasting destruction” - 2 Thess. 1:7, 8, 9, KJV.


“Go in by the narrow gate; for broad and roomy is the road that leads to destruction, and many are going in by it. But narrow is the gate and hard is the road that leads to life, and few are they that find it.... Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will get into the kingdom of heaven, but only those who practice doing the will of my Father in heaven. Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, was it not in your name that we prophesied ... and did many wonder-works?’ And then I will say to them openly, ‘I never knew you at all. Go away from me, you who practiced doing wrong.’” - Matt. 7:13, 21-23, CBW.


As in our original example we can easily give our own new meanings, which we and the many around us prefer, but the result is still spiritual adultery.

* * * * *
 
NOTES


A           The word “monotheism” does not refer to a single God (or even “God-nature”) which is composed of many persons! It means, instead, a religion which has one and only one [monos] single person who is worshiped as the Most High God. This really has nothing to do with a “God-nature”! Contrast the word “polytheism” with “monotheism.”

Polytheism is a religion with many persons sharing the worship which is properly due the Most High God Alone. For one function (war, for example) one deity receives the worship and sacrifices. On another occasion another deity (the goddess of love, for example) may receive the worship and sacrifices. It doesn’t matter whether they all share the same nature (as gods), as they most often did. What mattered was the position or authority and power each one held.

B        Also note that the NT word for “onlybegotten” (monogenes) means a single individual who alone was directly created (or procreated) by someone. You would not even properly call one twin (or one out of a set of triplets who had somehow all been born at the same instant) “the only begotten” (monogenes) ! Actually they would have to be described as part of a group of “many-begotten” (polygenes) !

C          Some ancient Hindus took their polytheism another step. They said that all Hindu gods are really one in nature (and being) with the Supreme God, therefore they were all True God. This did not, however, make them actual monotheists!


In exactly the same way, trinitarians are not monotheists! They could be described as polytheists or, like those ancient Hindus, as having a form of pantheistic polytheism.