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Saturday, June 18, 2011

Note (9.) to "DEFinite John 1:1c - DEF"

9.  Let's take the first of these, Jn 5:10 ('sabbath it is') as representative. Although strong trinitarian Daniel B. Wallace is a "Qualitarian" (one who promotes a trinitarian translation of Jn 1:1 by claiming it is "Qualitative" and therefore theos there indicates the full extent of God's qualities - making Jesus God, but separate from the Father - see the QUAL or HARNER studies), he still admits for John 5:10 -

"Although this could be translated 'it is the Sabbath' or, a bit less naturally, 'a Sabbath,' .... [it is better interpreted, according to Wallace, as] a qualitative noun." - p. 264, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan Publ., 1996.

Although the "Qualitative" interpretation is provably nonsense (see the QUAL or HARNER study papers)[11], the point is that it could be either definite or indefinite because it is a 'time/season' noun. We really don't know which was intended, and that is why I exclude them from being proper examples. However, note that all the following respected trinitarian translations render John 5:9 as "a sabbath" - NRSV; NIV; NAB ('70); NAB ('91); REB; NEB; KJIIV; GNB; CEV; ISV NT; MKJV; LITV; Wey NT; Young; and Beck (NT). Since John 5:10 is essentially a repetition of the same situation in 5:9, it is likely that this, too, should be understood as "a sabbath."

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